Luke 2:48--Did Mary need Grammar 101?

[Sirach14]

There is something surprising in what Our Lady says in this verse, which as the author stated " leaves most of us totally unsurprised. Only the scholars would notice it." The author goes on to say: " But one of them drew my attention to the strangeness of Mary’s saying ’ thy father and I’. In the language she was speaking, there was the same grammatical rule as in Latin–namely that the first personal pronoun should come first. One would expect her to have said ’ I and thy father’. Any schoolmaster who had heard her would have been shocked at so glaring a breach of grammatical correctness. Perhaps no rule of grammar could bring her to put herself before her carpenter husband."

 

[bengal_fan]

coming from some one who studied latin for 7 years…there are no “grammatical rules” in latin. words can come in any order. cicero had a particular style (as did others) that put words in certain orders but by no means was it necessary as the endings tell you what words goes with what.

 

[Juxtaposer]

Are you reading from an English translation? If so, I would suggest going back to the Greek and seeing how it’s written. Also, you must remember that the book of Luke was written about thirty years after Jesus’ Ascention, and that Luke 2:48 happened when Jesus was a child. Therefore, Luke is getting at least third-hand information. What does this mean in context? That the exact wording of Luke 2:48 is almost irrelevant. Bengal Fan also has a good point. So, did Mary need grammar 101? I’d have to say maybe, but this verse tells us vertually nothing with respect to Mary’s grammar.http://forums.catholic-questions.org/member.php

 

[copland]

Sirach,

Let not your heart be troubled. Here is what is said in the Greek NT. And it is perfect Greek!

Behold ---- father your and I
idou o pathr sou kagw

 

[whit]

bengal_fan:

coming from some one who studied latin for 7 years…there are no “grammatical rules” in latin. words can come in any order. cicero had a particular style (as did others) that put words in certain orders but by no means was it necessary as the endings tell you what words goes with what.

Darn, that’s why it never made any sense to me? I’m the kind of guy who goes “subject, verb, direct object.” All the other languages go whatever but those that come from the latin seem to go “verb, subject, direct object.” It was always confusing to me. Had no problem with the vocabulary as such but don’t ask me to put it into a sentence.

Whit