G
GUYMAN
Guest
The way I read Luke 21 it seems that Jerusalem is supposed to be under the “Gentiles” from the time of the Roman conquest (70 AD) until the second coming of Christ. But the state of Israel controls Jerusalem. How do you reconcile that with Scripture? I think some would say it shows that the modern state of Israel (which is based mainly on secular / nationalism) is so “un-Jewish” (in the Biblical sense) or “un-holy” that it is in fact a “Gentile” power. I know how much that will bother some to hear - but if that’s not the case then why was Jerusalem “liberated” in modern times before the second coming?