I think in this instance, when Nazis are asking you if you are hiding any Jews and in fact you are, and you know that silence is just as much an admission of having Jews in your house as out right telling them that you are hiding them, then in fact it would be NOT LYING which would be the sin, for otherwise you are handing innocent life over to be killed.
Then again, we have to define Lying. I am re-hashing my old arguments from two months ago regarding this very issue, but it needs to be said. Deceiving an enemy is not lying, it is a legitimate tactic of warfare, with plenty of Biblical precedent. In wartime, deception is a tactic, a defence, a tool and a weapon. The OT is full of stories of Godly men and women who deployed deception for the greater good. So perhaps we need to clarify what constitutes lying and what constitutes a just tactic of deception. For in cases of dealing with an enemy, whether a nation, a gang or an armed burglar, our lie is not, as the CCC states, the “The deliberate intention of leading a neighbor into error,” but the deliberate intention of leading an ENEMY into error.
In Exodus 1 we have a Nazi-type scenario where Pharoah wanted the Hebrew babies to be killed and the midwives refused to kill them. When Pharoaoh confronted them, the midwives lied and said that the babies were born before they could get there. So we read in Exodus 1:20-21 “Therefore God dealt well with the midwives: and the people multiplied, and waxed very mighty. And it came to pass, because the midwives feared God, that he made them houses.”
So either A. Not all lying is sin. B. All lying is sin and what is said to deceive the enemy in times of war and danger is not a lie at all but a weapon of deception to deceive not a neighbor but an enemy, such as in the case in Exodus, or C. All lying is sin, even if only venial, and we have a God who would reward venial sins. If there are other scenarios please let me know. I still stick with B.
I am saying that lies are wrong, but deception is not always a lie as some are understanding it, because at times it is an acceptable tactic. God would not command anyone to sin, venial or otherwise, would he? In Joshua Chapter 6 Rahab hid the spies and then “lied” to the rulers to protect their lives. In Hebrews 11:31 we read not the Rahab lied, not that she was causing error or confusion, but that “by faith the harlot Rahab perished not with them that believed not, when she had received the spies with peace.” James 2:25 goes so far to ask “likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?” The wages of sin is death, yet the practice of deception in this case was not only justified, but also led to both peace and faith…How can this be? Obviously the CCC is clear, but again, our understanding of it may need some assistance. I see no contradiction when we realize that maybe all lies as you understand them to be are sins, but only if we accept that not all practices of deception should constitute lying. Otherwise we have some big theological problems to deal with here. Like, is God a liar then? Or are we to believe like the Muslims, that God is not bound by His own moral law? God himself uses deception as a tactic in 1 Samuel 16:2 when he had samuel bring a heifer as an offering to Bethlehem so Saul wouldn’t suspect that Samuel’s real reason for going was to anoint David as King. So here is God lying, for the CCC states “To lie is to speak or act against the truth in order to lead someone into error,” which was exactly God’s intent. So now we have to understand error as an enemy of righteousness, not as wrong conclusions, and we have to understand lying as separate from tactical deception.