MacArthur

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While I appreciate John Macarthurs teaching, he allows his disdain of the RCC to sway his interpretation of scripture. I cannot think of the passages now, but there are a few times I have been reading his study Bible or commentary where a passage supports a RC teaching and the notes say “it doesn’t mean what it says” and I think, yes it does. It’s the reason I don’t read his work that frequently anymore.
I’ve read those commentaries as well. What he is referring to are words in Scripture where it’s “assumed” by Christians that a word means something, but that assumption can’t be backed up by either that particular passage on its own, or from Scripture in general. Do you have any specifics?
 
If he can’t get John 6 right on the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist - and in doing so he disagrees with apostolic faith for 2,000 years, then I don’t want anything to do with him.

Such is the outcome of the error of Sola Scriptura. In the case above, he is a solo scripturist, conforming his denomination to his own personal views. :eek:
May I ask where in John 6 does it say the bread & wine “becomes” the body & blood of Christ, as it does in John 2 when it says the water “became” wine? In fact, where in John 6 does it say that Jesus is talking about communion, or that communion is even occuring? What about John 6:53 where Jesus says, “Unless you eat the flesh & drink the blood of the son of man, you have no life in you”? What happens to baptized babies who die, those invincibly ignorant, those baptized by desire (like the repentant thief on the cross) or those baptized of blood (martyrs) who die without receiving communion? Since Jesus said “unless,” which in Greek means “except, or if not,” then wouldn’t Jesus be saying “except, or if not” you eat Jesus’ flesh & drink His blood, you have no life in you"? Wouldn’t these people end up in Hell?
 
That’s only because you haven’t read John Chrysostom, Ambrose, Augustine, Irenaeus or Ignatius 😉
Actually, I have (“Getting To Know the Church Fathers” by Bryan Litfin). And I still stand by what I previously wrote.
 
I have only met people that left the catholic church because they had a moral issue they couldn’t follow which one was your challange?
Actually, it came from reading the Bible.
Are you remarried or was contraception a stumbling block?
Neither of these things affected my decision, because when I was Catholic I believed in natural family planning which is a form of contraception. I also believed that if a person received an annulment, you could get remarried. So, neither of these things personally affected me.
 
Whenever I have seen the Church Fathers referred to by Protestant Evangelical believers it is always in short segments out of context, or using the argument of silence - this being the method used by The Pilgrim Church by E H Broadbent.

The Catholic Church uses the unanimous consent of the Fathers.

catholic-convert.com/wp-content/uploads/Documents/UnanimousConsent.doc

As talented as you may think a Individual teacher is, you are putting your faith in a fallible human being. I would rather trust the teaching of the Church that Jesus founded and promised to preserve truth in.
You do realize that the ECF’s disagreed on numerous theological issues, including ECF’s who were contemporaries of each other, such as Augustine & Jerome.
 
You do realize that the ECF’s disagreed on numerous theological issues, including ECF’s who were contemporaries of each other, such as Augustine & Jerome.
Let’s get specific. We can start with The Eucharist/ The Lords supper.

THE CATHOLIC POSITION

1374 The mode of Christ’s presence under the Eucharistic species is unique. It raises the Eucharist above all the sacraments as "the perfection of the spiritual life and the end to which all the sacraments tend."201 In the most blessed sacrament of the Eucharist "the body and blood, together with the soul and divinity, of our Lord Jesus Christ and, therefore, the whole Christ is truly, really, and substantially contained."202 "This presence is called ‘real’ - by which is not intended to exclude the other types of presence as if they could not be ‘real’ too, but because it is presence in the fullest sense: that is to say, it is a substantial presence by which Christ, God and man, makes himself wholly and entirely present."203

JOHN MACARTHURS POSITION

We believe that the Lord’s Supper is an ordinance of the Lord in which gathered believers eat bread, signifying Christ’s body given for His people, and drink the cup of the Lord, signifying the New Covenant in Christ’s blood. We do this in remembrance of the Lord, and thus proclaim His death until He comes. Those who eat and drink in a worthy manner partake of Christ’s body and blood, not physically, but spiritually, in that, by faith, they are nourished with the benefits He obtained through His death, and thus grow in grace.

The Catholic believes the consecrated bread and wine becomes Jesus - body, blood, soul and divinity. John MacArthur advocates a spiritual presence only.

It would be interesting to look at what the Church Fathers had to say on this.
 
Let’s get specific. We can start with The Eucharist/ The Lords supper.

THE CATHOLIC POSITION

1374 The mode of Christ’s presence under the Eucharistic species is unique. It raises the Eucharist above all the sacraments as "the perfection of the spiritual life and the end to which all the sacraments tend."201 In the most blessed sacrament of the Eucharist "the body and blood, together with the soul and divinity, of our Lord Jesus Christ and, therefore, the whole Christ is truly, really, and substantially contained."202 "This presence is called ‘real’ - by which is not intended to exclude the other types of presence as if they could not be ‘real’ too, but because it is presence in the fullest sense: that is to say, it is a substantial presence by which Christ, God and man, makes himself wholly and entirely present."203

JOHN MACARTHURS POSITION

We believe that the Lord’s Supper is an ordinance of the Lord in which gathered believers eat bread, signifying Christ’s body given for His people, and drink the cup of the Lord, signifying the New Covenant in Christ’s blood. We do this in remembrance of the Lord, and thus proclaim His death until He comes. Those who eat and drink in a worthy manner partake of Christ’s body and blood, not physically, but spiritually, in that, by faith, they are nourished with the benefits He obtained through His death, and thus grow in grace.

The Catholic believes the consecrated bread and wine becomes Jesus - body, blood, soul and divinity.
I asked another poster about this. Would you mind commenting on it?

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=12784231&postcount=22
John MacArthur advocates a spiritual presence only
It would be interesting to look at what the Church Fathers had to say on this.
I think you’d surprised that not “all” of the ECF’s, as well as other early Christians, believed this. Here are some quotes from some of them, such as Athenagoras, Clement of Alexandria, Eusebius, Origen, Tertullian, Theodoret, Theophilus of Antioch, as well as Augustine. Although this isn’t a Catholic Web site, the sole reason to post this isn’t to be “anti-catholic,” but to address your specific question about this particular issue:

carm.org/early-church-fathers-communion

Obviously, you can find many, many more ECF’s throughout Church history who do believe in literally. However, that’s because from the time the Church “universally” agreed on it, which was very early in Church history, there have been more centuries after the universal Church agreement of it, then there were prior to it. The point being is that since ECF’s were not “universal” on it until centuries after the time of Christ, is it a fair statement that the Church “always” & “universally” agreed on it, all the way back to the time of Christ & His disciples?

The other question I have is that as that when I was Catholic, I believed that when Jesus said, “I am the Bread of life,” he was referring to Himself being literally “present” in the communion bread. If this is true, then does that mean that when Jesus used other “I am” statement in John’s Gospel, that He was saying He was a literal “Door,” “Light,” “Vine,” "Shepherd’ of animal “sheep,” etc. If not, then why do so many Christians believe that Jesus is speaking figurative in these other “I am” verses, but He’s speaking literally when He says “I am the Bread of Life”?
 
**St Ignatius of Antioch **Bishop and thought to have student of the Apostle John.

I have no taste for corruptible food nor for the pleasures of this life. I desire the Bread of God, which is the flesh of Jesus Christ, who was of the seed of David; and for drink I desire His blood, which is love incorruptible. (Letter to Romans 7:3)

They [the Gnostics] abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in his goodness, raised up again. (Letter to Smyrn 7:1)
 
**St Ignatius of Antioch **Bishop and thought to have student of the Apostle John.

I have no taste for corruptible food nor for the pleasures of this life. I desire the Bread of God, which is the flesh of Jesus Christ, who was of the seed of David; and for drink I desire His blood, which is love incorruptible. (Letter to Romans 7:3)

They [the Gnostics] abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in his goodness, raised up again. (Letter to Smyrn 7:1)
MacArthur would actually agree with Ignatius, because there is nothing that Ignatius is saying in his non-inspired writing that assumes a literal presence of Jesus in the communion bread. In his letter to the Romans, Ignatius is equating love incorruptible with “drinking,” or “desiring” His Blood, which refers not to the wine, but His shed blood on the cross. When He says “flesh,” Ignatius is not using it any different than Jesus did in John 6, which elsewhere in Scripture refers to Christ’s “nature” or His “life” that He sacrificed on the cross for us. Eucharist in Scripture simply means “thanksgiving.” But it never refers to the actual communion bread itself. So, when Ignatius refers to “Eucharist,” he’s referring to the “thanksgiving” for the “nature” or “life” (“flesh”) that Christ “suffered for our sins,” not the actual communion bread itself. Try replacing “Eucharist” with “thanksgiving” in the above writings of Ignatius, & you’ll see what I mean.
 
MacArthur would actually agree with Ignatius, because there is nothing that Ignatius is saying in his non-inspired writing that assumes a literal presence of Jesus in the communion bread. In his letter to the Romans, Ignatius is equating love incorruptible with “drinking,” or “desiring” His Blood, which refers not to the wine, but His shed blood on the cross. When He says “flesh,” Ignatius is not using it any different than Jesus did in John 6, which elsewhere in Scripture refers to Christ’s “nature” or His “life” that He sacrificed on the cross for us.
Yes, and which rose again incorruptible. He didn’t leave his human nature behind.

They [the Gnostics] abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again.
Eucharist in Scripture simply means “thanksgiving.” But it never refers to the actual communion bread itself. So, when Ignatius refers to “Eucharist,” he’s referring to the “thanksgiving” for the “nature” or “life” (“flesh”) that Christ "suffered for our sins," not the actual communion bread itself. Try replacing “Eucharist” with “thanksgiving” in the above writings of Ignatius, & you’ll see what I mean.
Yes Eucharist is a Greek word that was used in scripture by meaning “giving thanks” but Ignatius is using it in the way it was later used, to refer to Holy Communion.

They * abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not confess that ***THE EUCHARIST IS THE FLESH OF OUR SAVIOR JESUS CHRIST, **flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in his goodness, raised up again. (Letter to Smyrnians 7:1)
 
Well, if that’s true, then it would a benefit to get his study Bible & compare his study notes, which include cross-references to other related passages to the particular text he is commenting on. I think that would a good test for your opinion on him. 🙂
I know all about John MacArthur. I was a Baptist for almost twenty years and spent some of those years in a pulpit spouting some of the same anti-Catholic garbage you do now.
You’ll come back to the Church eventually, the fact that you are here on CAF tells me you are being drawn. 👍
 
Actually, it came from reading the Bible.
Yeah, I used to say that too.
Except there is more Bible read, quoted, and preached about in the average Catholic, Orthodox,Episcopal, and Lutheran churches than most Baptist or “Reformed” churches I have been in.
 
I asked another poster about this. Would you mind commenting on it?

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=12784231&postcount=22

I think you’d surprised that not “all” of the ECF’s, as well as other early Christians, believed this. Here are some quotes from some of them, such as Athenagoras, Clement of Alexandria, Eusebius, Origen, Tertullian, Theodoret, Theophilus of Antioch, as well as Augustine. Although this isn’t a Catholic Web site, the sole reason to post this isn’t to be “anti-catholic,” but to address your specific question about this particular issue:

carm.org/early-church-fathers-communion

Obviously, you can find many, many more ECF’s throughout Church history who do believe in literally. However, that’s because from the time the Church “universally” agreed on it, which was very early in Church history, there have been more centuries after the universal Church agreement of it, then there were prior to it. The point being is that since ECF’s were not “universal” on it until centuries after the time of Christ, is it a fair statement that the Church “always” & “universally” agreed on it, all the way back to the time of Christ & His disciples?

The other question I have is that as that when I was Catholic, I believed that when Jesus said, “I am the Bread of life,” he was referring to Himself being literally “present” in the communion bread. If this is true, then does that mean that when Jesus used other “I am” statement in John’s Gospel, that He was saying He was a literal “Door,” “Light,” “Vine,” "Shepherd’ of animal “sheep,” etc. If not, then why do so many Christians believe that Jesus is speaking figurative in these other “I am” verses, but He’s speaking literally when He says “I am the Bread of Life”?
I will link a fuller set of quotes. Take a look at what some of those Fathers quoted by Carm have said.

therealpresence.org/eucharst/father/fathers.htm
 
Speaking as a former devout Catholic, there are a lot of Catholics who don’t agree with ECT too, because they feel it compromises Catholicism. As far as MacArthur goes, I’ve listened to him for years, & even had the privilege & honor to meet him, who - in person is a very, very humble & friendly man - I understand “why” Catholics don’t like him. But, in terms of Biblical exposition & knowledge of Church history, including the beliefs of ALL the ECF’s, I haven’t heard anyone - Protestant, Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, etc - that is more knowledgeable & consistent in Christian theology. The MacArthur Study Bible is an invaluable tool. So, even if you don’t necessarily agree with everything he teaches, the benefit of having it, is if you adamantly disagree with his exegesis of Scripture, his footnotes (over 20,000) are backed up by directing you to cross-reference other Scriptures - in context - to back up what he writes & teaches.

👍 to John MacArthur. 🙂
So McArthur believes that scripture is inherent word of God and is sufficient in and of itself to impart all the wisdom of the Lord . So my question is based on whose interpretation of Scripture ? For instance you and I obviously disagree on the interpretation of John:6. How do we resolve that? Is endless verse wars and arguments over what the meaning of “is” is really what Jesus intended when he founded his church? When Jesus ascended to heaven were his last words “I left your book ,now figure it out for yourself”?And if McArthur is right why did God wait 1500 years to reveal this to his people ?
 
The teaching of “Scripture alone” is destroyed every time you open a phone book and count the number of denominations in your given area.
:cool:
 
Actually, it came from reading the Bible.

Neither of these things affected my decision, because when I was Catholic I believed in natural family planning which is a form of contraception. I also believed that if a person received an annulment, you could get remarried. So, neither of these things personally affected me.
Funny thing after reading the bible that made me catholic, so that kind of disproves bible alone 1 Tim 3:15
 
Another split about something in protestantism?

What’s the number at now?

Also “faith alone” isn’t in the bible, even well-known protestant bible scholars recognize this. Instead of taking the council of Trent to task, maybe they should reign in their own scholars first?

Look here:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Perspective_on_Paul
 
You do realize that the ECF’s disagreed on numerous theological issues, including ECF’s who were contemporaries of each other, such as Augustine & Jerome.
And did either one of them start a new denomination? Or did both of them submit to the pillar and bulwark of truth?
 
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