I asked another poster about this. Would you mind commenting on it?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=12784231&postcount=22
I think you’d surprised that not “all” of the ECF’s, as well as other early Christians, believed this. Here are some quotes from some of them, such as Athenagoras, Clement of Alexandria, Eusebius, Origen, Tertullian, Theodoret, Theophilus of Antioch, as well as Augustine. Although this isn’t a Catholic Web site, the sole reason to post this isn’t to be “anti-catholic,” but to address your specific question about this particular issue:
carm.org/early-church-fathers-communion
Obviously, you can find many, many more ECF’s throughout Church history who do believe in literally. However, that’s because from the time the Church “universally” agreed on it, which was very early in Church history, there have been more centuries
after the universal Church agreement of it, then there were prior to it. The point being is that since ECF’s were not “universal” on it until centuries after the time of Christ, is it a fair statement that the Church “always” & “universally” agreed on it, all the way back to the time of Christ & His disciples?
The other question I have is that as that when I was Catholic, I believed that when Jesus said, “I am the Bread of life,” he was referring to Himself being literally “present” in the communion bread. If this is true, then does that mean that when Jesus used other “I am” statement in John’s Gospel, that He was saying He was a literal “Door,” “Light,” “Vine,” "Shepherd’ of animal “sheep,” etc. If not, then why do so many Christians believe that Jesus is speaking figurative in these other “I am” verses, but He’s speaking literally when He says “I am the Bread of Life”?