Majority Texts - HELP!

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I am asked to respond to a request for comment on the “Majority Texts”??? as well as Westcott and Hort’s work on the Greek texts. I suspect this has something to do with the KJV is correct and nothing else is ligit.

Is anyone familiar with this or can anyone offer comments on this.

I was also directed to a website called: www.thelordjesus.com. You would have to click on “The Majority Text Society” to read what I was directed to. Upon review of this poorly constructed site. I am curious if the request for comment from me may be setting me up.

Any thoughts?
 
I’ve never heard of this ‘Majority Text Society’, found it quite interesting. I’ve often wondered about their example in KJV which ends the Lord’s prayer … thine is the kingdom…

A reference website, with a not very flattering opinion of the KJV because it was based on translation corruptions and additions of the Textus Receptus, which the KJV relies on, can be found here.

Note an adjoining page explains the Mat 6:13 Lord’s prayer ending here indicating this phrase was not in the original Greek translation, but added by the TR
 
Copland,
Great theory, well written, & makes sense! Keep up your wonderful work 👍
 
The Majority, or Byzantine, Text is the Greek textual tradition that follows the vast majority of extant manuscripts. It is almost identical to the New Testament that is used by the Greek Orthodox.

Usually any contested Byzantine reading has about 85-99% manuscript. The main argument against it is the superior antiquity of a few contrary manuscripts.

If you have quite a lot of time, and are interested in this subject, you may enjoy reading this online version of Dr. Wilbur Pickering’s book on the subject in which he promotes the Majority Text position.

Majority text supporters are at fairly serious odds with most KJV-only folks, because, for one thing, a certain amount of KJV-only supporters do not believe in studying the Greek manuscripts at all; they are KJV ONLY! For another thing those of them who do accept Greek texts only accept Textus Receptus, which has about 2% variance with the Majority text.

Also, for what it’s worth, according to Dr. Pickering, the doxology on the end of the Lord’s Prayer in Matthew is present in about 99% of extant manuscripts.
 
Ethan, thanx for the Dr. Pickering link! I’ve scanned it, & have to admit, the Bibles I’m studying, some of which may not be valid translations as minority text, are quite a bit troublesome. 😦

The more in depth I study certain passages. the more I keep returning to the D-R and the similar KJV translations as the correct interpretations. Usually this is based solely on commentary by Church Doctors. And if I’m reading Pickering correct, seems these translations are the closest to majority texts.
 
You’re welcome. Of course the the Douay-Rheims was actually translated out of the “authentical Latin”, but it was “diligently conferred with the Greeke”. I’m sure the Greek texts they were using were closer to the majority than those of most modern translators are.
 
I also meant to say to the OP, if you want to look at a Byzantine text New Testament, you can find it at biblos.com. Just scroll down to where the different language Bible versions are; 63 & 64 are Byzantine Text Greek New Testaments.
 
Ethan_Enoch said:
I also meant to say to the OP, if you want to look at a Byzantine text New Testament, you can find it at biblos.com. Just scroll down to where the different language Bible versions are; 63 & 64 are Byzantine Text Greek New Testaments.
Click to expand...
I use that site all the time, it is excellent!
 
Dan86 said:
The Western Text is accurate. The Alexandrian Text is corrupt.
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That’s a pretty heavy statement to make. Can you please tell us the reasons as to why the Alexandrian textual tradition is corrupt and why the Western text-type is accurate?
 
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