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GusG
Guest
So far I’ve found two arguments for priests being male only; the persona Christi one, and the Biblical one. My summary of the Biblical argument is:
From the Bible we know Jesus chose no female apostles. We also know that He was not just passively sticking to social norms when He did this, because He frequently challenged and broke unnecessary Jewish traditions. Therefore He must have had an active reason for choosing only men, and this reason must be either personal prejudice, or rational. However, we also know from the Bible that Jesus was not sexist:
"At this point his disciples returned and were surprised to find him speaking to a woman, though none of them asked, ‘What do you want from her?’ or, ‘What are you talking to her about?’ " John 4:27. A Jewish man did not even talk with his wife in public, and Jesus had been discussing theology with the woman, which was even more unconventional. This and similar prove Jesus was not sexist.
Therefore, Jesus must have had a rational reason for choosing only men as his disciples.
Firstly, is my understanding of the argument correct?
Secondly, I wondered if anyone had postulated what Jesus’ reason may have been?
Thanks in advance.
From the Bible we know Jesus chose no female apostles. We also know that He was not just passively sticking to social norms when He did this, because He frequently challenged and broke unnecessary Jewish traditions. Therefore He must have had an active reason for choosing only men, and this reason must be either personal prejudice, or rational. However, we also know from the Bible that Jesus was not sexist:
"At this point his disciples returned and were surprised to find him speaking to a woman, though none of them asked, ‘What do you want from her?’ or, ‘What are you talking to her about?’ " John 4:27. A Jewish man did not even talk with his wife in public, and Jesus had been discussing theology with the woman, which was even more unconventional. This and similar prove Jesus was not sexist.
Therefore, Jesus must have had a rational reason for choosing only men as his disciples.
Firstly, is my understanding of the argument correct?
Secondly, I wondered if anyone had postulated what Jesus’ reason may have been?
Thanks in advance.