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Philomena
Guest
I am overwhelmed with all of your scholarship and charity in answering my question! Thank you so much!
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HeDa
Guest
Just to add another Greek word. 
The Greek word porneia πορνεία is used many times in the NT for all sexual activities that are not between a married husband and his wife.
The Greek word porneia πορνεία is used many times in the NT for all sexual activities that are not between a married husband and his wife.
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Philomena
Guest
thank you!
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Hodos
Guest
This is false both in the Hebrew translation and the Septuagint. Both Hebrew words used in the verse she is referring to mean a male, and is not specific to the age of the male. In the Greek, it uses words that appear to refer to the passive and active partners engaged in homosexual intercourse, but again, this is irrespective of age of the participants. Bottom line, she has no idea what she is talking about.
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Hodos
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To add to what you are saying kapp19, Paul makes clear we are not to just cast aside the Old Testament law, we uphold it. While the ceremonial laws that make distinctions between Jew and Gentile are no longer being observed because through Christ we have been made into one people, we still affirm the OT moral law requirements. In fact Jesus, Paul, and others constantly quote or paraphrase it as still binding to the Christian believer.
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Hodos
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I think she is referring to Leviticus 20:13 which do use two different Hebrew words for male. Zaker and Ish. However, these words are synonymous and do not reflect the age of the subjects.
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Philomena
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She sent me this article. Has “Homosexual” always been in the Bible? — forge “Has Homosexuality Always Been in the Bible?” She says the word homosexual didn’t show up in the Bible until 1946. This has got to be too easy for you guys! Thanks for your answers in advance!
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Fauken
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From a quick Google search…
(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
The word didn’t even exist until the late 1800’s. New words do not just get slapped into Scripture, nor become a commonly used word instantly, hence why it wasn’t in the Bible.
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kapp19
Guest
From what I can tell, there is not going to be a knock-down lexical argument for this. There aren’t many usages of the word “arsenokoitai” and it is quite plausible that there were activities being alluded to reminiscent of the Greek tradition of men taking boys for themselves (“on the side” - they would have wives as well, the boys were just “for fun”), maybe with some money involved. However, this is problematic, and in fact insurmountable for several reasons. First, nowhere is this fact clarified - that is, nowhere does Scripture say, “What we’re really talking about is this particular kind of same-sex activity, other kinds are fine.” In fact, one can always make this kind of appeal until a very particular kind of claim is made (i.e., “Paul is only talking about homosexual activity in religious rites, not in general!” Well, why not any number of other qualifiers taken from some bad element of the cultural context?) Point is, that is never indicated. Second, the ethics which actually evolved in Judaism and Christianity do not reflect any kind of tolerance of same-sex activity. Third, there are other, clearer condemnations of this activity in Scripture (such as in Genesis and in Romans)… It was not in 1946 that Jews and Christians were thinking for the first time that this behavior is bad. Fourth, the argument rests on what is knowable by natural reason and does not require revealed doctrine strictly speaking, which also connects with the exclusivity of sexual behavior within monogamous and indissoluble marriage.
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