B
bengal_fan
Guest
Hahn is doing exactly the kind of reading into the text wiht the lenses of later traditions that I am talkign about. The basic catholic apologetic of Mary’s sinlessness and continued virginity lies on two items:The forst is anunderstanding of kexaritomena as “Full of Grace”. It is a fairly common word in koine and means favored one, and is often used in a way that we would understand as “lucky” The koine phrase for “full of grace” is actually plara karitos and is used twice, once in reference to Jesus and once to Stephen, and so even the concept of full of grace meaning free from sin has no basis in the biblical text.
The Second is the assertation that Jesus’ siblings, at least six of whom are mentioned in the NT, were not Mary’s kids. Beyond the fact that there is no need for this stretch unless you come to the text with a preconception (hah!) of Mary’s Virginity, there is no evidence at all for it. They are seen treating Mary as their mother, which would be unusual (shockingly so) for stepchildren to do after their father had died, and there is no evidence from the Lukan Narrative regarding other childen or previous marriage.
Also, Matt 1:25 absolutely implies that they had intercourse after Jesus was born.
i posted this in apologetics as well. just wanted to get your take on this. i had encouraged this person to read “Hail, Holy Queen” by Scott Hahn and this was their response. what do you think?You say look to other tradition, older than your own. If you read what those fathers complained about and fought for in the forst few centuries after Christ, you will see that they kept having to fight people who invented stuff about Jesus or God in order to change the message fo the Gospel. When you look to extra biblical sources of theat time period, that is what you are going to run into.