Mariology Answers

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I agree that these things are wrong but these are not “rules of faith” in the sense we use the scriptures to guide us.
Ok, you agree that abortion is murder, and murder is wrong, but you don’t think the Bible tells us this?
I ask you both to look at the context where this phrase occurs. Is there anything in the context of Luke 1 that leads us to believe the angel is saying anything at all about Mary being without sin?
This is what we understand the angel to mean. Full of Grace = without sin. Sin cannot exist where there is a fullness of grace.
 
Yes!

And to justasking…do you follow the meaning behind the Greek text identifying Mary as having been full of grace in both directions of time…i.e. all the way back to her conception, and forward forever. If you don’t see it, well then I guess you don’t! 🤷
Where in the text is it speaking of Mary being sinless all her life? That’s what you want to look for.
 
guanophore;2689209]Ok, you agree that abortion is murder, and murder is wrong, but you don’t think the Bible tells us this?
The scriptures don’t tell us explicitedly abortion is murder but we know it is because the fetus is a human being and killing a human being is murder which breaks the commandment.
This is what we understand the angel to mean. Full of Grace = without sin. Sin cannot exist where there is a fullness of grace.
Where does it say this in the defintion that “Sin cannot exist where there is a fullness of grace”?
 
Whatever label you want to use, at least you understand that concepts can be drawn from Scripture that aren’t explicit with a casual reading. That’s the first step toward understanding Mary! 👍
i asked this question eleswhere to those who want to support the marian doctrines with “implicit” arguments. My question is this:
what is the criteria for something to be implicitedly taught?
 
Where in the text is it speaking of Mary being sinless all her life? That’s what you want to look for.
Not really. I think that is what YOU are looking for. Catholics understand that the Angel’s greeting “Hail, full of grace” means that Mary was already filled with Grace prior to her being overshadowed by the HS. Since you don’t have the Sacred Traditions to confirm this for you, and you are not finding the specific words “sinless all her life” in the text some where, then you reject the Teaching.
 
Where in the text is it speaking of Mary being sinless all her life? That’s what you want to look for.
Not really. I think that is what YOU are looking for. Catholics understand that the Angel’s greeting “Hail, full of grace” means that Mary was already filled with Grace prior to her being overshadowed by the HS. Since you don’t have the Sacred Traditions to confirm this for you, and you are not finding the specific words “sinless all her life” in the text some where, then you reject the Teaching.
The scriptures don’t tell us explicitedly abortion is murder but we know it is because the fetus is a human being and killing a human being is murder which breaks the commandment.

Where does it say this in the defintion that “Sin cannot exist where there is a fullness of grace”?
1 John 3:8-9
9 No one born of God commits sin; for God’s nature abides in him, and he cannot sin because he is born of God."

Mary had this kind of birth before she conceived of Jesus.
 
Where in the text is it speaking of Mary being sinless all her life? That’s what you want to look for.
Not really. I think that is what YOU are looking for. Catholics understand that the Angel’s greeting “Hail, full of grace” means that Mary was already filled with Grace prior to her being overshadowed by the HS. Since you don’t have the Sacred Traditions to confirm this for you, and you are not finding the specific words “sinless all her life” in the text some where, then you reject the Teaching.
The scriptures don’t tell us explicitedly abortion is murder but we know it is because the fetus is a human being and killing a human being is murder which breaks the commandment.

Where does it say this in the defintion that “Sin cannot exist where there is a fullness of grace”?
1 John 3:8-9
9 No one born of God commits sin; for God’s nature abides in him, and he cannot sin because he is born of God."

Mary had this kind of birth before she conceived of Jesus.
i asked this question eleswhere to those who want to support the marian doctrines with “implicit” arguments. My question is this:
what is the criteria for something to be implicitedly taught?
When it is received from the Apostolic Sacred Oral Tradition, and endorsed by the Magesterium. Something like the Trinity, and the hypostatic union.
 
One might say that Tradition would have been put in the Bible if it had been compiled later. Instead, it is kept seperate from the Bible, but it is no less true.
 
One might say that Tradition would have been put in the Bible if it had been compiled later. Instead, it is kept seperate from the Bible, but it is no less true.
Do you have a couple of examples of what these Traditions are?

Are they considered inspired-inerrant?
 
Do you have a couple of examples of what these Traditions are?

Are they considered inspired-inerrant?
“Something like the Trinity, and the hypostatic union.”

They are true, being revealed to man and accepted by the Church, thorugh the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
 
i asked this question eleswhere to those who want to support the marian doctrines with “implicit” arguments. My question is this:
what is the criteria for something to be implicitedly taught?
Where in the text is it speaking of Mary being sinless all her life? That’s what you want to look for.
There’s nothing implicit about it. Sorry justasking4, but you’ve offered no counter-explanation for the Greek naming Mary “full of grace” from conception to forever, so I find no use in explaning the same thing to you again without your own exegesis of the passage.
 
There’s nothing implicit about it. Sorry justasking4, but you’ve offered no counter-explanation for the Greek naming Mary “full of grace” from conception to forever, so I find no use in explaning the same thing to you again without your own exegesis of the passage.
Here what this word phrase means in greek— To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharitōménē, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitóō declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitóō is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace.
Now look at the context in which this phrase in Luke occurs. What you do not find is that she is sinless. Not here, not anywhere in the NT nor in the definition itself. Also note that there is no reference that she was somehow “full of grace” from conception.
 
Here what this word phrase means in greek— To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharitōménē, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitóō declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitóō is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace.
Now look at the context in which this phrase in Luke occurs. What you do not find is that she is sinless. Not here, not anywhere in the NT nor in the definition itself. Also note that there is no reference that she was somehow “full of grace” from conception.
Kecharitomene, the perfect passive participle, shows a completeness with a permanent result. Kecharitomene denotes continuance of a completed action (H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b; also Blass and DeBrunner, p.175).

As in, **remaining **full of grace. Not a momentary thing.

Examples of the perfect participle are the following:

The word “beloved” in
Ephesians 1:6 " … for the praise of the glory of his grace that he granted us in the beloved." Jesus is perfectly and enduringly loved by His Father.

The word “Blessed” in
Luke 1:42 “… Blessed is the fruit of your womb.” Jesus is perfectly and endlessly blessed by God the Father.
Therefore, Luke 1:28 points to Mary being without sin. So, at this point the only question is at what point in her life is Mary made without sin.
All Christians agree that this is a prophecy about the Messiah, Jesus Christ, coming to strike the head of the serpent, Satan. - Actually the Hebrew word that is translated as “seed” is being used in a very unusual way. Normally it applies to the male, but here it is being used in reference to a woman. It is referring to Jesus’s birth through the Virgin Mary. - So, looking back at this Scripture we should appropriately ask ourselves, of which woman’s seed was He born ? The answer of course is Mary. Jesus even goes on to identify Mary as the “Woman” in John 2:4 , 19:26.
It is important to note that the creation of the enmity between Satan and the woman is not something that the woman does, rather it is what God does, and He does it in the most perfect way. Unfortunately some Christians in their misguided attempts to defend the glory of God actually insult Him by denying Him the credit that is due for this miraculous work He did in Mary.
If there had ever been a time when Mary was under Satan’s domination through personal or original sin, then there would not be a real enmity between her and Satan. Therefore, by virtue of the grace He gave her, God put Mary in opposition to Satan from the beginning and throughout her life. Notice that God the Father says that He will put the enmity between her and Satan. Only in God, and by His gift of grace, also in Mary, can it be said that there is enmity with Satan because only in them is their entire life opposed to Satan.
If there had ever been a time when Mary was under Satan’s domination through personal or original sin, then there would not be a real enmity between her and Satan.
From here.
 
Now look at the context in which this phrase in Luke occurs. What you do not find is that she is sinless. Not here, not anywhere in the NT nor in the definition itself. Also note that there is no reference that she was somehow “full of grace” from conception.
Thanks to Miserissima for articulating the meaning of the word again. As for me, sorry j.a. I don’t think you are reading what people are posting. I’m going to have to appeal to Titus 3:10 here and bid you God’s blessings.
 
Thanks to Miserissima for articulating the meaning of the word again. As for me, sorry j.a. I don’t think you are reading what people are posting. I’m going to have to appeal to Titus 3:10 here and bid you God’s blessings.
Before you Titus 3:10 me, please read Luke 1:26-38 and see if you find any thing there about Mary being without sin all her life.
 
Kecharitomene, the perfect passive participle, shows a completeness with a permanent result. Kecharitomene denotes continuance of a completed action (H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b; also Blass and DeBrunner, p.175).

As in, **remaining **full of grace. Not a momentary thing.

Examples of the perfect participle are the following:

The word “beloved” in
Ephesians 1:6 " … for the praise of the glory of his grace that he granted us in the beloved." Jesus is perfectly and enduringly loved by His Father.

The word “Blessed” in
Luke 1:42 “… Blessed is the fruit of your womb.” Jesus is perfectly and endlessly blessed by God the Father.

From here.
Now apply this definition to Luke 1:26-28 and see if there is anything about Mary being without sin her entire life? Is there anything here about her moral purity being a requirement for her to carry the Christ?
 
You to need to look for this otherwise all you are doing is speculating.
No, justasking4. I have received this instruction from the Teaching Authority appointed by Jesus, which does not speculate, but holds fast to all that Jesus said to do, and to teach.
On what grounds do you understand this? Is it in the defintion itself that says this?
You are persistently complaining that the Church has not interpreted the verses. Well, here is one that has been! We understand the greeting of the angel to say that being full of grace is a completed action in the past that persists indefinitely into the future. I know there are a number of Protestant dictionaries that state differently (I have some on my shelf).
Yes. There is nothing to base it on. Claiming “Sacred Tradition” in and of itself is not proof. What you need now to do is to show where and by whom this “Sacred Tradition” begins.
I don’t need “proof”, since I have placed my faith in Jesus, and have trust in the teaching authority that He has placed over me. I also do not need to “show” where and by whom the Sacred Tradition begins because I know that this is also from Jesus. He was brought up breathing and praying in the Sacred Tradition as a Jew, he used it to teach His apostles.

Mark 4:34
4 he did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his own disciples he explained everything."

The Apostles then chose faithful persons to pass on what was taught to them.

2 Tim 2:1-3
2 and what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also."

This is what the Apostolic Succession is all about.
Do you have a couple of examples of what these Traditions are?

Are they considered inspired-inerrant?
Yes, they are considered equally with the written Teachings (refer to the verse in my signature) Some of those Sacred Traditions is that Mary remained sinless throughout her life, that she had no more children, and that she was taken that she was taken up, body and soul into heaven when her time on the earth was completed. These Sacred Traditions are shared by the Orthodox (Eastern Churches) and are not a “Latin” or “Roman” invention or assumption, as you seem to believe.
 
Now apply this definition to Luke 1:26-28 and see if there is anything about Mary being without sin her entire life? Is there anything here about her moral purity being a requirement for her to carry the Christ?
This is a very interesting question. Yes, in the sense that Jesus took His humanity from her, and could not take anything unto Himself that had been tainted by sin. No, in the sense that Mary’s personal choices not to sin did not meet a requirement of purity. It was God’s grace that made her pure, so that she could be the Mother of God (not just “carry” but create within her). Her subsequent moral purity was her choice to continue abiding in the HS and God’s grace throughout her life, an option that is available for all of us.
 
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