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kevinatunzu
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Did the Blessed Virgin Mary experience the normal child-bearing pain?
Joe:Not according to the Council of Trent:
“Mary was exempt from this law, for preserving her virginal integrity inviolate she brought forth Jesus the Son of God without experiencing, as we have already said, any sense of pain.”
I don’t know if I’m qualified to answer that question satisfactorily, but it does give me the occasion to clarify my source. The quote is actually from the Catechism of the Council of Trent (AKA the “Roman Catechism”), not the documents from the Council of Trent, itself. Sorry about that!Joe:
Thanks for the link. I believe that Mary, ever virgin, conceived Jesus of the Holy Ghost and gave birth to Him, and I know that this is dogma. However, is it also dogma that she gave birth without pain? Is everything a council says, even if it is only in passing, dogma?
Marsha
Cavalier:If I may ask, then, if our Lady brought forth our Lord without pain, then how can we see her as the Woman in Revelations 12? After all, it is often argued, in support of the heavenly Queenship of our Lady, and her Assumption I believe as well, that this text is a reference to our Lady, and yet it says in verses 1-2:
“A great sign appeared in the sky, a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. She was with child and wailed aloud in pain as she labored to give birth.”
If then, this is a reference to our Lady, yet the Church teaches that she gave birth to our Lord without pain, then surely we must either believe that she did give birth in the normal way (which seems contrary to the Church’s teaching), or the idea that the Revelations text refers to her in chapter 12 is simply mistaken?
Or have I gone wrong somewhere?
Any help would be much appreciated!
Grace and Peace be with you, and fraternal affection,
The Cavalier
Did Mary experience the pain of childbirth? I would assume so, but I am a Protestant who accepts neither the Immaculate Conception (defined in 1854) or the Assumption (defined in 1950). The Marian emphasis in Catholicism, as everyone knows, is a major difference between Catholics and Protestants,
But is this important? Isn't it a bit like debating how many angels can dance on the end of a pin?
No one seems to have grabbled sufficiently with a question I have asked. If Mary is so central to Christian doctrine - "Queen of Heaven" etc - why don't all those epistles of St. Paul ignore her completely? He, after all, was the chief missionary apostle. His letters informed the early Christians as to belief and practice. Yet, her name doesn't come up once.
No offense, but that suggests to me that certain early Christians were heavily influenced by the goddess worship that was commonplace in the Greco-Roman world that was so powerful in the first two and three centuries. Among the influences of these pagan cults were: (1) excessive emphasis on Mariology; (2) saints gradually replaced many gods and goddesses of that era - a special saint for about everything; and (3) the adulation that had gone to the Roman emperor was largely transferred to the bishop of Rome.
Still, all Christians honor Mary, of course. She was, after all, the mother of Christ, and for that she deserves our deep gratitude. But that is far removed from the position Mary has come to occupy in Catholicism over the centuries.
But God bless Catholics, Protestants, Orthodox - all of his children of every creed and color and country. Religion should be a bridge rather than a barrier between us. Jesus would want that.
I truly understand your point, but ours is not for Mary’s sake…but for Jesus’ sake! Every tiny bit of detail about Mary’s bearing the infant Jesus is not about Mary, it is about the child being born - Jesus! And every detail about how this happened exactly is not about her but about HIM! All this DOES have very important bearing on how we understand HIS nature and prevent heresies from becoming widespread.Important Question?
Code:Did Mary experience the pain of childbirth? I would assume so, but I am a Protestant who accepts neither the Immaculate Conception (defined in 1854) or the Assumption (defined in 1950). The Marian emphasis in Catholicism, as everyone knows, is a major difference between Catholics and Protestants, But is this important? Isn't it a bit like debating how many angels can dance on the end of a pin? No one seems to have grabbled sufficiently with a question I have asked. If Mary is so central to Christian doctrine - "Queen of Heaven" etc - why don't all those epistles of St. Paul ignore her completely? He, after all, was the chief missionary apostle. His letters informed the early Christians as to belief and practice. Yet, her name doesn't come up once. No offense, but that suggests to me that certain early Christians were heavily influenced by the goddess worship that was commonplace in the Greco-Roman world that was so powerful in the first two and three centuries. Among the influences of these pagan cults were: (1) excessive emphasis on Mariology; (2) saints gradually replaced many gods and goddesses of that era - a special saint for about everything; and (3) the adulation that had gone to the Roman emperor was largely transferred to the bishop of Rome. Still, all Christians honor Mary, of course. She was, after all, the mother of Christ, and for that she deserves our deep gratitude. But that is far removed from the position Mary has come to occupy in Catholicism over the centuries. But God bless Catholics, Protestants, Orthodox - all of his children of every creed and color and country. Religion should be a bridge rather than a barrier between us. Jesus would want that.
Precisely because our Marian devotion is NOT about Mary but about Jesus! Mary was never a priest! [an Apostle] The Apostles were Jesus’ priests. Jesus could have done things differently, but didn’t.Important Question?
Code:No one seems to have grabbled sufficiently with a question I have asked. If Mary is so central to Christian doctrine - "Queen of Heaven" etc - why don't all those epistles of St. Paul ignore her completely? He, after all, was the chief missionary apostle. His letters informed the early Christians as to belief and practice. Yet, her name doesn't come up once.
Aquinas was referring to the Protevangelium Jacobi, which is better known to us as the Protoevangelium/Gospel of James.Joe:
What was the apocryphal book that Aquinas was referring to?
Permit me an indelicate question, based on Aquinas’ comment “that Christ came forth from the closed womb of His Mother, and, consequently, without opening the passage”, how did Jesus leave Mary’s womb? When I was born I came through a certain passage and out a certain opening. It seems that Aquinas is saying that Jesus did not do it the same way I did. Please understand that I am not suggesting that we discuss the Holy Virgin’s anatomy any more explicitly than this.
My personal opinion is that Jesus was born just like you and I were, but he miraculously passed through the virginal barrier without breaking it. That seems a lot more likely to me, than Mary was lying in the stable pregnant and then poof she was lying in the stable with a baby in her arms. I think it was a matter that the Early Fathers and Aquinas were not comfortable with discussing the messy details of birth in the same paragraph with the Holy Virgin - something I can really appreciate.Basically, a lot of the debate in this regard had to do with Mary’s perpetual virginity. If, through the Annunciation, Christ did not violate Mary’s virginity by “opening the passage”, why would he do so in the Nativity? I think that’s basically the train of thought that leads people like Aquinas to conclude that it must have happened through some other way.
This does certainly get awkward to talk about at times!![]()
That makes more sense to me. Perhaps that’s what the Early Fathers and Aquinas meant.My personal opinion is that Jesus was born just like you and I were, but he miraculously passed through the virginal barrier without breaking it. That seems a lot more likely to me, than Mary was lying in the stable pregnant and then poof she was lying in the stable with a baby in her arms. I think it was a matter that the Early Fathers and Aquinas were not comfortable with discussing the messy details of birth in the same paragraph with the Holy Virgin - something I can really appreciate.and you can too,
Could it simply mean that the ‘passage’ was ‘closed as it was before’, after His birth? That shouldn’t be too ‘impossible’ for God, right?Joe:
What was the apocryphal book that Aquinas was referring to?
Permit me an indelicate question, based on Aquinas’ comment “that Christ came forth from the closed womb of His Mother, and, consequently, without opening the passage”, how did Jesus leave Mary’s womb? When I was born I came through a certain passage and out a certain opening. It seems that Aquinas is saying that Jesus did not do it the same way I did. Please understand that I am not suggesting that we discuss the Holy Virgin’s anatomy any more explicitly than this.
I could easily believe that explanation.Could it simply mean that the ‘passage’ was ‘closed as it was before’, after His birth? That shouldn’t be too ‘impossible’ for God, right?