Marital act question that's been on my mind

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TravisandJill

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I tend to over think things but my husband and I use NFP and I was just thinking if it’s considered a contraceptive act for a wife to get up immediately (like within a minute) after the MA and urinate if not done to prevent conception (because we already abstain when I am infertile anyways so not worried about that aspect) but done to prevent UTI and hygiene?

Is there some teaching on this somewhere? I have read Jone Moral theology but it wasn’t really clear enough to understand.
 
No, I don’t believe it is contraceptive. I always get up and go, to prevent UTIs. Although when we were TTC I didn’t immediately. Everything I’ve read states that the ones that would make it in, make it in before you can do anything about it, like within seconds. Someone else may know something I don’t, but I never thought going to the bathroom after was a contraceptive in any way.
 
TravisandJill said:
I tend to over think things but my husband and I use NFP and I was just thinking if it’s considered a contraceptive act for a wife to get up immediately (like within a minute) after the MA and urinate if not done to prevent conception (because we already abstain when I am infertile anyways so not worried about that aspect) but done to prevent UTI and hygiene?

Is there some teaching on this somewhere? I have read Jone Moral theology but it wasn’t really clear enough to understand.
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No. Please don’t be scrupulous.
 
TravisandJill said:
I tend to over think things but my husband and I use NFP and I was just thinking if it’s considered a contraceptive act for a wife to get up immediately (like within a minute) after the MA and urinate if not done to prevent conception (because we already abstain when I am infertile anyways so not worried about that aspect) but done to prevent UTI and hygiene?

Is there some teaching on this somewhere? I have read Jone Moral theology but it wasn’t really clear enough to understand.
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No, that’s not contraceptive at all. Once the MA is completed, you’re good to go (literally and figuratively), and as you rightly pointed out, urinary tract infections are an issue for many women. Don’t sweat it. 🙂

You might find the following text helpful. It doesn’t address your specific question but has good general guidelines.

twotlj.org/G-2-9-E.html
 
I’m no expert , but I suspect the Plumbing goes in different directions ,so,no
 
Bradski said:
I think that you need to study female anatomy a little.
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I think maybe you do. Yes, they are two separate holes. But it is very common for women to get a UTI after have sex because bacteria from “certain orifices” can become intermingled with the natural fluids that occur during the marital act. Bacteria then works its way into the urethra causing a UTI. This is why it is very important for a woman to urinate and clean herself after sex.

Edited to add:

If you are referring the fact that urination wouldn’t be an act of contraception just because the semen is not in a womans urethra, again you need to study anatomy. When a women urinates she uses muscles which can sometimes force any seminal fluids from her vagina as well. Not to mention, gravity. 🤷
 
Mamanurse said:
If you are referring the fact that urination wouldn’t be an act of contraception just because the semen is not in a womans urethra, again you need to study anatomy. When a women urinates she uses muscles which can sometimes force any seminal fluids from her vagina as well. Not to mention, gravity. 🤷
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I do agree with you on that point. In fact, urination after the marital act has been recommended as a means of helping to avoid yeast infections.

Regardless, has anyone anywhere ever seen or heard the Church stipulate that a woman has to maintain an appropriate posture for a specified period of time after coitus in order to optimize procreative success?

My understanding is the the Church has not and has no intention of promulgating a user manual for the marital act.
 
Theology of the body is up, if you are feeling tired, I’m sure Holy See is willing to give you grace as long as you ask for it, morally.
 
Mamanurse said:
I think maybe you do. Yes, they are two separate holes. But it is very common for women to get a UTI after have sex because bacteria from “certain orifices” can become intermingled with the natural fluids that occur during the marital act. Bacteria then works its way into the urethra causing a UTI. This is why it is very important for a woman to urinate and clean herself after sex.

Edited to add:

If you are referring the fact that urination wouldn’t be an act of contraception just because the semen is not in a womans urethra, again you need to study anatomy. When a women urinates she uses muscles which can sometimes force any seminal fluids from her vagina as well. Not to mention, gravity. 🤷
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Can, sometimes, maybe… oh yes this is obviously a most sinful behavior… :rolleyes:

Seriously, if they are trying for a kid specifically then maybe do the fertility roll thing etc. If they are just sexing up and being open to life the possible effects of peeing and gravity are not of concern.

I also highly doubt she goes “ahhhh” and immediately runs straight to the bathroom. I am sure there is at least a minute or 5 of some embrace and such… plus you know after he finishes and she maybe didnt yet he proceeds for a few… etc… I mean seriously?
 
Here’s the quote:

MORAL THEOLOGY
by Fr. Heribert Jone
b) Onanism is…done especially…c) by applying pressure on the vagina to expel the semen
…
a) “A woman sins gravely by expelling the semenal fluid or preventing its entry into the uterus. It is not sinful to do so if she is the victim of rape or deception provided she does so before conception, since in this instance the semen is equivalent to an unjust aggressor. Urination after coition does not prevent conception and hence is not sinful; however, one may sin gravely by resorting to it with an evil intention”

I realize that women urinate out of a different area than the vagina. The same muscles that are used to urinate are the same ones that expel semen at the same time
 
TravisandJill said:
Here’s the quote:

MORAL THEOLOGY
by Fr. Heribert Jone
b) Onanism is…done especially…c) by applying pressure on the vagina to expel the semen
…
a) “A woman sins gravely by expelling the semenal fluid or preventing its entry into the uterus. It is not sinful to do so if she is the victim of rape or deception provided she does so before conception, since in this instance the semen is equivalent to an unjust aggressor. Urination after coition does not prevent conception and hence is not sinful; however, one may sin gravely by resorting to it with an evil intention”

I realize that women urinate out of a different area than the vagina. The same muscles that are used to urinate are the same ones that expel semen at the same time
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I think you have a sensitive conscience and are not distinguishing between someone practicing coitus interruptus or douching or otherwise trying to prevent conception by attempting to block or eliminate semen, and someone following hygienic practices and NFP instructions for eliminating EXCESS seminal fluid so as to properly identify fertility signs.

I suggest that a moral theology manual is NOT reading for someone with a sensitive conscience without proper spiritual direction accompanying it for this very reason.
 
LethalMouse said:
Can, sometimes, maybe… oh yes this is obviously a most sinful behavior… :rolleyes:

Seriously, if they are trying for a kid specifically then maybe do the fertility roll thing etc. If they are just sexing up and being open to life the possible effects of peeing and gravity are not of concern.

I also highly doubt she goes “ahhhh” and immediately runs straight to the bathroom. I am sure there is at least a minute or 5 of some embrace and such… plus you know after he finishes and she maybe didnt yet he proceeds for a few… etc… I mean seriously?
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I think there may have been a typo in my original post or something. Because no where did I say that urination after sex is wrong. I was merely pointing out to the other posters, who kept saying the OP needs to learn anatomy, that there are legitimate reasons for a woman to want to to use the bathroom after sex. I was trying to help them understand where the OP may be coming from because they clearly made it seem as though the OP thought her urethra was inside her vagina or something. That is all. Obviously I misspelled something.
 
TravisandJill said:
Urination after coition does not prevent conception and hence is not sinful; however, one may sin gravely by resorting to it with an evil intention"
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Even this source states specifically that one may sin gravely by “resorting to it with an evil intention” and that I suppose would be a woman taking steps to expel semen from her vagina with the specific intent to reduce changes of conception. I agree it is the intent that is sinful, even if the woman is mistake about how effective such an action really would be.

I assume that if someone bought counterfeit OCP pills on the Internet, but thought they were real and took them to avoid conception, then she’d have to confess that, even if she was not successful and did wind up pregnant. Because morality isn’t just about actions, but the intentions behind them.

AFAIK, the Church does not teach that couples must avoid any act that may reduce chances of conception, otherwise men wouldn’t be allowed to get into hot tubs, or wear tight underwear. And women would be forbidden to breastfeed.
 
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