Marital Relations During Pregnancy

[Mattapoisett64]

Marriage is a sacrament and acts proper to the married have a sacramental quality in that one needs to be initiated into the sacrament of marriage to participate in “martial acts”.

The martial act has a particular matter and form to it, as do all sacramental acts. This matter and form in its most basic setting involves the completion of the marital act by the deposition of fluid into the genital tract of the female in a manner that is apt for the generation of children. If a man can not ejaculate, he can not get married.

The matter and form of the act is independent of the fact that one is pregnant or not, fertile or not, too old for children, and so on. The martial act is by the design of God made to be both unitative and procreative simultaneously in at least an iconic or metaphysical sense. All of the married, regardless of their physical state (old, sterile, pregnant, etc.) are held to this same particular form (ejaculation of fluid into the genital tract of the female) because this form is always and everywhere unitative and procreative, even if in reality the procreative end has already been met or is impossible to achieve. The symbolism of the act still must be present for it to meet its proper end of simultaneous unity and procreation. Even if pregnancy is impossible in the temporal order, the act itself must be “apt for the generation of children” as the act is still an iconic reflection of the Trinity (as already pointed out) and therefore must be at least is metaphorically open to life.

Onan tried this in Genesis 38 (withdrawal) and it seems that even though he seemed to have a contraceptive intent which is absent here, God did not like it and killed him. God in Scripture rarely takes an individual life in the first person so and so withdrawal and “finishing outside” must be pretty grave matter.

It would seem that you are asking if it is OK to masturbate with your wife because your procreative intention is fulfilled. That answer, for the 2000+ year life of the Church is no, because the martial act has a particular matter and form and this form includes the deposition of ejaculate into the genital track of the female for the act to be properly completed. To do otherwise is grave matter.

All this time I thought “martial acts” were those things done once Martial Law had been declared. Of course, if the issue is marital acts . . . .

More seriously, I question if the test for marriage is ejaculation. My understanding of Canon Law is that it addresses potency vs. impotence, not ejaculatory ability . Nocturnal emissions aside - which not every male experiences - to test or question for ejaculatory ability would mean that the male intending to marry would have had to commit some variety of mortal sin to determine if he CAN ejaculate. I doubt that the Church is requiring that in order to answer the pre-marital questionnaire in the rectory.

 

[hasikelee]

www.christopherwest.com

My sister was reading this thread over my shoulder. You have to understand, she is a very brassy, blunt girl.

Her response:

“They have blow up dolls for what he wants to do; his wife should be his beloved, not his doll.”

Real sex with your wife is deeper and more meaningful then getting a bit of pleasure. Have you carefully taken into consideration your wife’s involvement in this? Do you think that she might feel like a blow up doll for you?

 

[Katie1723]

Your point? It is still a gravely disordered act and serious sin if not mortal sin. Repentance is in order for those couples who knowingly or purposeful ignorance engage in such sinful behavior.

My point sir/maam is that there are a lot of people who say one thing i.e. “I would never do that” but in reality would/did “that”…i.e they are hypocrites. It is indeed a sin in the eyes of the church. And they should indeed repent.

Kathy

 

[fix]

More seriously, I question if the test for marriage is ejaculation. My understanding of Canon Law is that it addresses potency vs. impotence, not ejaculatory ability . Nocturnal emissions aside - which not every male experiences - to test or question for ejaculatory ability would mean that the male intending to marry would have had to commit some variety of mortal sin to determine if he CAN ejaculate. I doubt that the Church is requiring that in order to answer the pre-marital questionnaire in the rectory.

I would think the presumption is that the man is capable, unless there is some direct medical evidence contrary and even then I would think the bishop would decide on the given facts.