P
PalletBoy
Guest
(I posted this in Ask an Appologist I think, but that might have been the wrong forum?)
I have a friend who I’ve been discussing Catholicism with (he is a recent convert). I grew up with a Baptist-type background, so much of this is very new to me and I’m quite open, however, I’m confused at certain points.
We were discussing sex inside marriage as we both have children.
I understand that the Catholic belief is that contraception (in any form) is wrong. (catholic.com/library/Birth_Control.asp) and “The Church has always maintained the historic Christian teaching that deliberate acts of contraception are always gravely sinful”
Again from that same link: “Contraception is wrong because it’s a deliberate violation of the design God built into the human race, often referred to as “natural law.” The natural law purpose of sex is procreation. The pleasure that sexual intercourse provides is an additional blessing from God, intended to offer the possibility of new life while strengthening the bond of intimacy, respect, and love between husband and wife.”
So is the prognosis that you cannot have sex unless it is with the intent to procreate?
I’ve read that the way around the “no contraception” rule is to have sex during the “infertile” times in the woman’s cycle to promote Natural Family Planning. Isn’t this an indirect (or direct!) method of birth control? You are intentionally trying to avoid impregnation, which is defined as “contraception”.
If “contraception” is defined as “any action which, either in anticipation of the conjugal act [sexual intercourse], or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible” then isn’t deliberately avoiding sex until you know your wife is least likely to get pregnant just another form of contraception? In this case, you are trying NOT to get pregnant by avoiding those times when your spouse is likely to get pregnant.
How is this then any different than contraception via a condom, the pill, etc, if you’re open to the life that would result from failed contraceptive devices?
Lying by omission is still lying. Sex with the intent to not-impregnate is still contraceptive in design. I’m confused and it seems to be splitting hairs, especially when I read Song of Solomon and the text is talking about the glories of the physical (marital) relationship, which, as far as I can read in the text of “climbing and grabbing the fruit”, is not intended to produce Solomon Jr, but instead intended to derive pleasure from the physical martial relationship.
I really appreciate your time and knowledge.
I have a friend who I’ve been discussing Catholicism with (he is a recent convert). I grew up with a Baptist-type background, so much of this is very new to me and I’m quite open, however, I’m confused at certain points.
We were discussing sex inside marriage as we both have children.
I understand that the Catholic belief is that contraception (in any form) is wrong. (catholic.com/library/Birth_Control.asp) and “The Church has always maintained the historic Christian teaching that deliberate acts of contraception are always gravely sinful”
Again from that same link: “Contraception is wrong because it’s a deliberate violation of the design God built into the human race, often referred to as “natural law.” The natural law purpose of sex is procreation. The pleasure that sexual intercourse provides is an additional blessing from God, intended to offer the possibility of new life while strengthening the bond of intimacy, respect, and love between husband and wife.”
So is the prognosis that you cannot have sex unless it is with the intent to procreate?
I’ve read that the way around the “no contraception” rule is to have sex during the “infertile” times in the woman’s cycle to promote Natural Family Planning. Isn’t this an indirect (or direct!) method of birth control? You are intentionally trying to avoid impregnation, which is defined as “contraception”.
If “contraception” is defined as “any action which, either in anticipation of the conjugal act [sexual intercourse], or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible” then isn’t deliberately avoiding sex until you know your wife is least likely to get pregnant just another form of contraception? In this case, you are trying NOT to get pregnant by avoiding those times when your spouse is likely to get pregnant.
How is this then any different than contraception via a condom, the pill, etc, if you’re open to the life that would result from failed contraceptive devices?
Lying by omission is still lying. Sex with the intent to not-impregnate is still contraceptive in design. I’m confused and it seems to be splitting hairs, especially when I read Song of Solomon and the text is talking about the glories of the physical (marital) relationship, which, as far as I can read in the text of “climbing and grabbing the fruit”, is not intended to produce Solomon Jr, but instead intended to derive pleasure from the physical martial relationship.
I really appreciate your time and knowledge.