There are quite a few off topic comments and uncharitable remarks above, which I will ignore. I also do not reply to posts which exaggerate or distort my position in order to claim to have refuted it. Also, I’m not participating in the discussion with Lauds, because he/she openly rejects Catholic teaching on sexual ethics.
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Let’s apply the three fonts of morality to the act in question, which is an unnatural sexual act, lacking sexual climax, done prior to natural marital relations.
- intended end (purpose) is said to be to prepare for natural marital relations; this end is good. Acts used to prepare for marital relations are called foreplay; this defines the intended end in the first font of morality. However, good intention is not sufficient to cause an act to be moral, and so the mere fact that an act is being used for the purpose of foreplay does not justify the act. Also, a good intended end does not justify an intrinsically evil means.
Pope John Paul II: “Consequently, circumstances or intentions can never transform an act, intrinsically evil by virtue of its object, into an act ‘subjectively’ good or defensible as a choice.”
- A sexual act is any deliberate use of the genital sexual faculty. The moral object of an unnatural sexual act is evil because all such acts lack the procreative meaning (neither are such acts truly unitive or truly marital). To be moral, each and every sexual act must be unitive, procreative, and marital. Therefore, every unnatural sexual act is intrinsically evil and always immoral.
The absence of climax does not cause an intrinsically evil sexual act to become moral because the moral object remains unchanged; the moral object is the sole determinant of the moral species of any deliberately chosen act. The result called sexual climax is a consequence in the third font, and so it does not affect the moral object in the second font.
- circumstances - the circumstance that the unnatural act lacks sexual climax does not change the moral object from evil to good; the circumstance that the wife cannot achieve sexual climax without the aforementioned act does not change the moral object from evil to good. No circumstance or context can justify an intrinsically evil act.
Pope John Paul II: “The weighing of the goods and evils foreseeable as the consequence of an action is not an adequate method for determining whether the choice of that concrete kind of behavior is ‘according to its species’, or ‘in itself’, morally good or bad, licit or illicit. The foreseeable consequences are part of those circumstances of the act, which, while capable of lessening the gravity of an evil act, nonetheless cannot alter its moral species.”
In my several posts above, I’ve stated a clear theological argument, based on the writings of Saints and the teachings of the Magisterium. I’ve written a couple of articles on this subject, containing the same theological arguments, but in greater detail.
catholicplanet.com/CCSE/index.htm
I don’t think any one else in this thread has offered a substantial theological argument to support the contrary position. So this post concludes my participation in this thread, at least for the present time.