Mark 3:34

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Does Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
 
It’s an example of hyperbole, the use of exaggeration to create a strong impression, but not meant to be taken literally, like saying that “all Jerusalem” got upset along with Herod at the arrival of the Magi. Surely there were some in the city who slept through the whole thing.
 
Does Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
When Jesus explained everything to His disicples, He did speak literally. So, no, this verse does not indicate that Jesus never spoke literally.
 
Does Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
Sorry, am a bit confused :confused:. I use the Ignatius Press large print Bible and Mark 3:34 says "And looking around on those who sat about him, he said “Here is my mother and mt brethren!”.

Reference the question. In our Homily a couple of weeks ago our priest talked about when Jesus spoke in parables and when he was stating a truth. If my memory is correct, the priest said that the clues were when Jesus said Truly, truly or verily, verily as that indicates a truth. It was something to do with the Jewish language at the time. Parables were when Jesus was telling a story to illustrate a truth.

My understanding was that Jesus spoke privately to his disciples (which makes sense to me) because He knew that He had to leave them physically and they needed help to carry on. In the same way, as a sheep (I’d rather be a cute lamb), I don’t need the same level of training and knowledge as a Sheppard.

Just one view. I am sure that more learned posters will have a clearer explanation.
 
It’s Mark 4:34.
Thanks. Found it. Think I understand. If we start at Mark 4:1 Jesus taught a big crowd in parables. Moving to Mark 4:33 and 34 “With many such parables he spoke the word to them, as they were able to hear it; he did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his own disciples he explained everything.” So it seems to me that the only way Jesus could get his teachings across to the crowd was through parables as it was a language (i.e. imagery) they would understand. But with his disciples, he dispensed with stories and got down the the stuff they would need to know, if they were to carry on after he ascends into Heaven.
 
Okay, thanks. I understand the verse now. I was discussing baptism with someone and they said that baptism for salvation was a parable and mentioned this verse. Thanks again.
 
Okay, thanks. I understand the verse now. I was discussing baptism with someone and they said that baptism for salvation was a parable and mentioned this verse. Thanks again.
Sounds like the person you were talking with is one who hears parables rather than plain speech if he thinks baptism is a parable. It was Jesus’ coronation as “Messiah”, the King whom God promised he would call “My Son”. And everyone who joined Jesus was baptized by Him (by his disciples for him). And we, to be considered joined with him are also baptized by him (by his disciples).

John Martin
 
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