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nschmitz10
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Does Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
When Jesus explained everything to His disicples, He did speak literally. So, no, this verse does not indicate that Jesus never spoke literally.Does Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
Sorry, am a bit confusedDoes Mark 3:34 “He did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his disciples he explained everything” indicate that Jesus never spoke literally?
It’s Mark 4:34.Sorry, am a bit confused…
Thanks. Found it. Think I understand. If we start at Mark 4:1 Jesus taught a big crowd in parables. Moving to Mark 4:33 and 34 “With many such parables he spoke the word to them, as they were able to hear it; he did not speak to them without a parable, but privately to his own disciples he explained everything.” So it seems to me that the only way Jesus could get his teachings across to the crowd was through parables as it was a language (i.e. imagery) they would understand. But with his disciples, he dispensed with stories and got down the the stuff they would need to know, if they were to carry on after he ascends into Heaven.It’s Mark 4:34.
Sounds like the person you were talking with is one who hears parables rather than plain speech if he thinks baptism is a parable. It was Jesus’ coronation as “Messiah”, the King whom God promised he would call “My Son”. And everyone who joined Jesus was baptized by Him (by his disciples for him). And we, to be considered joined with him are also baptized by him (by his disciples).Okay, thanks. I understand the verse now. I was discussing baptism with someone and they said that baptism for salvation was a parable and mentioned this verse. Thanks again.