M
Malperdy
Guest
In the recent Sunday Gospel we are told again of the cure of the woman suffering from a chronic haemorrhage. In the midst of a jostling crowd she reaches out to touch His garment, and is cured by her act of faith. “At once Jesus realised that power had gone out from Him.” And He stops and asks who it was that touched Him.
[The Douay-Rheims Latin version says ‘virtue’ rather than ‘power’: *Et statim Iesus cognoscens in semet ipso virtutem quae exierat de eo…]
As Mark puts it, Jesus realised that a miracle had occurred because He felt the power go out from Him. But, this suggests that the miracle occurred without any act of will on Jesus’s part. What do you think? Could the miracle have happened without His prior intention?
[The Douay-Rheims Latin version says ‘virtue’ rather than ‘power’: *Et statim Iesus cognoscens in semet ipso virtutem quae exierat de eo…]
As Mark puts it, Jesus realised that a miracle had occurred because He felt the power go out from Him. But, this suggests that the miracle occurred without any act of will on Jesus’s part. What do you think? Could the miracle have happened without His prior intention?