J
jttierney1
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Does anyone know which canon states that a marriage between a catholic and non-catholic, without dispensation, is considered invalid?
I think you’re looking for this one:Thank you “The Fool” for the post. I just read the canon 1124 thanks to you. But I’m looking for something more specific. There is a canon that states that a marriage between a catholic and non-catholic without dispensation is invalid.
Canon 1083.Section 1. A marriage between two persons, one of whom has been baptized in the Catholic Church or received into it and has not defected from it by a formal act and the other of whom is not baptized, is invalid.
Section 2. A person is not to be dispensed from this impediment unless the conditions mentioned in cann. 1125 and 1126 have been fulfilled.
Section 3. If at the time the marriage was contracted one party was commonly held to have been baptized or the baptism was doubtful, the validity of the marriage must be presumed according to the norm of can. 1060 until it is proven with certainty that one party was baptized but the other was not.
You don’t state if you are looking for information about an atempted Marriage between a Catholic and a validly Baptized Non-Catholic or between a Catholic and a non-Baptized person? Two different situations.Does anyone know which canon states that a marriage between a catholic and non-catholic, without dispensation, is considered invalid?
What do you need that is more specific?Thank you “The Fool” for the post. I just read the canon 1124 thanks to you. But I’m looking for something more specific. There is a canon that states that a marriage between a catholic and non-catholic without dispensation is invalid.
So many people giving better answers than I ever could! Anyway, I suppose this might be more helpful than before, but the others make more sense to me.Thank you “The Fool” for the post. I just read the canon 1124 thanks to you. But I’m looking for something more specific. There is a canon that states that a marriage between a catholic and non-catholic without dispensation is invalid.
Would this mean that a valid Catholic wedding cannot have a “renewal of vows” conducted by a Catholic priest? (I was under the assumption that a renewal of vows was not allowed until a priest told me that he does them regularly.)§3. It is forbidden to have another religious celebration of the same marriage to give or renew matrimonial consent before or after the canonical celebration according to the norm of §1
Assuming that a Catholic priest would conduct such a marriage without first obtaining the appropriate permission from the bishop, the marriage would be valid but illicit under modern (1983) canon law. I believe it was actually invalid under the older canon law.It’s for a attempted marriage between a baptized catholic and baptized protestant, without dispensation.
Yes, in general, the marriage would be considered valid by the Church.How about a marriage between two persons who were baptised in the Protestant church, got married, then one of the spouces became Catholic? Is that marriage considered valid by the Church?
Thank You!! I am joining the Church on Pentecost and my wife and I were both baptised Protestant. A Catholic brother told me our marriage might not be valid when I become Catholic and that freaked out my wife!Yes, in general, the marriage would be considered valid by the Church.
This is provided that there are no impediments (such as a prior bond of one or the other spouse).
Each specific situation would be looked at to ensure no impediments and that everything was in order.
It is an unfortunate fact that there are many Catholics who lack an accurate understanding of the Church’s teaching on marriage and what constitutes validity and sacramentality.Thank You!! I am joining the Church on Pentecost and my wife and I were both baptised Protestant. A Catholic brother told me our marriage might not be valid when I become Catholic and that freaked out my wife!
In the case mentioned, a baptized Protestant and a Catholic, a dispensation is not required, only the pastor’s permission.Assuming that a Catholic priest would conduct such a marriage without first obtaining the appropriate permission from the bishop, the marriage would be valid but illicit under modern (1983) canon law. I believe it was actually invalid under the older canon law.
I suggest you read canons 1124 & 1125In the case mentioned, a baptized Protestant and a Catholic, a dispensation is not required, only the pastor’s permission.
I guess it depends on the diocese. In ours pastors have the authority to give permission for mixed marriages. It’s clearly indicated in the forms for the pre-nuptial investigation. A copy of the form is forwarded to the Chancery office.I suggest you read canons 1124 & 1125
Can. 1124 Without express permission of the competent authority, a marriage is prohibited between two baptized persons of whom one is baptized in the Catholic Church or received into it after baptism and has not defected from it by a formal act and the other of whom is enrolled in a Church or ecclesial community not in full communion with the Catholic Church.
Can. 1125 The local ordinary can grant a permission of this kind if there is a just and reasonable cause. He is not to grant it unless the following conditions have been fulfilled:
1/ the Catholic party is to declare that he or she is prepared to remove dangers of defecting from the faith and is to make a sincere promise to do all in his or her power so that all offspring are baptized and brought up in the Catholic Church;
2/ the other party is to be informed at an appropriate time about the promises which the Catholic party is to make, in such a way that it is certain that he or she is truly aware of the promise and obligation of the Catholic party;
3/ both parties are to be instructed about the purposes and essential properties of marriage which neither of the contracting parties is to exclude.
1124 says “competent authority” but does not define what that means
1125 does define that “competent authority” as the “local ordinary”
This is a “permission” not a “dispensation” (as it was under the old codex), but nevertheless it’s not within the competence of the parish pastor to grant that permission without recourse to the bishop.