Marriage Consummation

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If a baptized man and a baptized woman enter into Christian marriage, yet cannot consummate the marriage by completing marital intercourse, is the marriage valid or sacramental in the eyes of the Catholic Church? Examples of those who could not consummate the marital act may be a couple who wed when elderly or a parapalegic numb from the waist down. Thank you.
 
If the inability to consummate is permanent the marriage is null. As a matter of fact, if the inability to consummate (impotence) is known to be permanent before the wedding, the marriage is forbidden.
 
The marriage is presumed valid and sacramental until proven otherwise to the proper church authorities. A man or woman who is absolutely sure they are impotent before marriage may not present themselves for the sacrament of marriage. A competent priest will not witness the marriage without discussing this with them. Especially in light of the obvious such as a person in a wheelchair. Canon law prohibts such a marriage when impotence is known for sure prior to the ceremony.
 
Thank you for the clarification. From the above posts I note that the Church will make the assumption that the marriage has been consummated.
 
The marriage is presumed valid and sacramental until proven otherwise to the proper church authorities. A man or woman who is absolutely sure they are impotent before marriage may not present themselves for the sacrament of marriage. A competent priest will not witness the marriage without discussing this with them. Especially in light of the obvious such as a person in a wheelchair. Canon law prohibts such a marriage when impotence is known for sure prior to the ceremony.
Just a quick correction–not all people using wheelchairs are impotent! The legs may not work, but that doesn’t preclude other things from operating just fine. 😉

Paul
 
If a baptized man and a baptized woman enter into Christian marriage, yet cannot consummate the marriage by completing marital intercourse, is the marriage valid or sacramental in the eyes of the Catholic Church? Examples of those who could not consummate the marital act may be a couple who wed when elderly or a parapalegic numb from the waist down. Thank you.
As noted by others, perpetual and antecedant impotence – The *inability *to consummate the marriage – Is an impediment to a valid marrige.

However: If the couple is *capable *to consummate, but simply do not do so, other things being equal the marriage is valid.
Thank you for the clarification. From the above posts I note that the Church will make the assumption that the marriage has been consummated.
Yes.

Can. 1061 §2. After a marriage has been celebrated, if the spouses have lived together consummation is presumed until the contrary is proven.

tee
 
Just a quick correction–not all people using wheelchairs are impotent! The legs may not work, but that doesn’t preclude other things from operating just fine. 😉

Paul
Thanks Paul. I only brought up the wheel chair as an example of what would draw the priests attention to discuss very thoroughly this topic.
 
Thanks Paul. I only brought up the wheel chair as an example of what would draw the priests attention to discuss very thoroughly this topic.
Actually, the question must be asked of every person seeking to get married. There is nothing which would specifically “trigger” this question.
 
Thank you for the clarification. From the above posts I note that the Church will make the assumption that the marriage has been consummated.
A marriage is only consummated once sexual intercourse has taken place, i.e. penetration is required.

How would the Church or anyone know if consummation had or had not taken place unless the couple make this fact known? Obviously it would be assumed to be consummated until someone tells!
 
Actually, the question must be asked of every person seeking to get married. There is nothing which would specifically “trigger” this question.
I know it and you know it but that doesn’t mean it’s happening. In conversations I’ve had with other married folk the topic has never been addressed. I have an engaged nephew with a spinal cord injury and the priest that will officiate at his wedding has never asked him.

It was the “very thoroughly” that I was getting at. I know in my job as a nurse I had to be specific about certain things. I figure it’s like that for a priest as well.
 
I know it and you know it but that doesn’t mean it’s happening. In conversations I’ve had with other married folk the topic has never been addressed. I have an engaged nephew with a spinal cord injury and the priest that will officiate at his wedding has never asked him.

It was the “very thoroughly” that I was getting at. I know in my job as a nurse I had to be specific about certain things. I figure it’s like that for a priest as well.
Every diocese (at least in the US) has “standard” pre-marriage forms. I can’t say that I’ve seen a copy of them for every diocese, but I can say that it’s safe to assume that the question is on all of them, given the gravity of the question itself (just like we can make the assumption “have you ever been married before?” would be on all the forms).

Like medical professionals, priests realize that sometimes questions can be a bit personal and seem intrusive, but they have to be asked nonetheless. It can be done politely and “quickly” without making too much of it.
“Is there anything preventing…?”
“No”
“ok. next question…”
 
In our diocese the question is

Do you have the physical capacity for conjugal relations?

I hope the priest words it differently because based on what I see in baptismal preparation, 1/2 the couples wouldn’t have a clue what that expression means.
 
Every diocese (at least in the US) has “standard” pre-marriage forms. I can’t say that I’ve seen a copy of them for every diocese, but I can say that it’s safe to assume that the question is on all of them, given the gravity of the question itself (just like we can make the assumption “have you ever been married before?” would be on all the forms).
No such question was ever asked during my marriage prep.

Was was asked was if we were intending and able to have children.
 
I remember being asked both questions – but I remember next to nothing of the marriage ceremony.

In our diocese both questions are on the form, as are the ones about understanding that marriage is forever, fidelity, freedom to marry, and the one about coming to the marriage of your own free will. Each question is followed by the number of the relevant canon.
 
No such question was ever asked during my marriage prep.

Was was asked was if we were intending and able to have children.
Since you were asked “are you able to have children?” that covered it.
 
Every diocese (at least in the US) has “standard” pre-marriage forms. I can’t say that I’ve seen a copy of them for every diocese, but I can say that it’s safe to assume that the question is on all of them, given the gravity of the question itself (just like we can make the assumption “have you ever been married before?” would be on all the forms).

Like medical professionals, priests realize that sometimes questions can be a bit personal and seem intrusive, but they have to be asked nonetheless. It can be done politely and “quickly” without making too much of it.
“Is there anything preventing…?”
“No”
“ok. next question…”
Oh my gosh…I’m shocked. I didn’t know this. You mean that, for example, an older widow and widower, faithful Catholics but unable for health or age, whatever, to consummate their marriage cannot validly be married in the Church? Or someone with a spinal cord injury that is incapable couldn’t be married in the Church? Can one receive a dispensation for this?? This makes me sad.
 
Oh my gosh…I’m shocked. I didn’t know this. You mean that, for example, an older widow and widower, faithful Catholics but unable for health or age, whatever, to consummate their marriage cannot validly be married in the Church? Or someone with a spinal cord injury that is incapable couldn’t be married in the Church? Can one receive a dispensation for this?? This makes me sad.
This was my exact question also.
 
Thus says the canon
Can. 1084 §1. Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have intercourse, whether on the part of the man or the woman, whether absolute or relative, nullifies marriage by its very nature.
§2. If the impediment of impotence is doubtful, whether by a doubt about the law or a doubt about a fact, a marriage must not be impeded nor, while the doubt remains, declared null.
§3. Sterility neither prohibits nor nullifies marriage, without prejudice to the prescript of can. 1098.
tee
 
Oh my gosh…I’m shocked. I didn’t know this. You mean that, for example, an older widow and widower, faithful Catholics but unable for health or age, whatever, to consummate their marriage cannot validly be married in the Church? Or someone with a spinal cord injury that is incapable couldn’t be married in the Church? Can one receive a dispensation for this?? This makes me sad.
That is correct. If permanent untreatable impotence of the man or woman is known prior to a marriage then they would not be allowed to marry in the Church.
Infertility on the other hand is not a bar to marriage.
 
Thus says the canon

tee
Tee, I know you guys know what you’re talking about but that just seems so wrong to me.

I have often seen people on here post the “only Catholics” as far as salvation and we know now the Church says that non-Catholics do have the possibility of salvation outside the Church. They are just posting the old version, so to speak. Could that be happening with this or does it still hold??
 
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