I’m not saying this was the correct way of thinking, but I believe it has been a culturally acceptable thing for men to be able to “sow their wild oats” before getting married. It showed that they were “men”. Only the husband could make her into a “woman”. There was, unfortunately, a double standard. A marriagable wife needed to be pure and chaste. Most men and their families didn’t want “used goods”, unless they were marrying a widow. It would have brought scandal upon both their families. For some reason, that same standard wasn’t showed upon the men. It was as if they expected and accepted that men would be earthly creatures, whereas the unmarried woman was something unearthly and needed to be kept that way at least until the wedding night.
A perfect example of this is in Thomas Hardy’s novel “Tess of the d’Urbervilles” in which Hardy criticizes his society’s (Victorian society) double standard of sexuality by telling the plight of a “fallen” woman.
Religion and spirituality aside, having a virgin for a wife was also very important especially in terms of heirs. Men wanted to be sure that their offspring was truly their own - especially the boys. For the royalty, the women would have to go through examinations to prove that they were virgins and were perfectly healthy in order to conceive children. And although it was expected that a woman would stay faithful, it was acceptable for the husband (like the king) to have his own mistresses. King Louis XVI of France, for example, did not want mistresses which was looked upon as very strange and unbecoming. It was a tradition for the French kings to have their mistresses and live with them in their own rooms of the palaces. And the queens were expected to accept and look the other way. But if the women had their own affairs and it was found out, it brought shame and embarrassment upon the husband.
Anyway, these are some of the reasons I believe is why there is not much emphasis on the guy to show his purity and virginity.
I am extremely curious in this…BECAUSE I was raised with my mother accepting her husband-my father- as having affairs during their marriage. Now it has never been really confirmed but once or twice I would over hear her telling everyone when my grandma etc would ask her why she would let my father go out to the bars and be with “women” in private, she would say things like “he’s a man! As long as I get his paycheck let him do with his body what he wants!”
When I started dating, I had lots of bfs when I was young, mostly because I could, not because I really wanted anything with them and bfs for me were actually more like friends, people I hung out with or played sports with, etc-never anything serious…I guess I just hated what I grew up with my mom saying women couldn’t have more than one man in their lives but men could have all the women they wanted…
So I did date many, and everyone talked, “oh she’s having sex, that’s the 10th man she slept with!!” ETC…When I spoke with my mom about it, she was like “you are dirty!” I was like what’s the big deal about having boyfriends? I don’t understand… I am not doing anything with them, they are my boy friends…
She said that was sinful and I was going to hell for it because I was supposed to just date the man I was supposed to marry. Of course the man I ended up with was the one that hurt me the most…And that’s the one I had a serious relationship with and was my first love!!! LOL
But when I saw my brother’s doing it with everyone they wanted to, including having multiples, both of my parents were happy and proud!!! I was like WHAT? HUH? EXCUSE ME??? And when asked about it, “they are men and that’s what they need to do and must do!!”
I still don’t understand to this day…And with my mother telling me that I am not allowed to talk to anyone about my bf because I am a divorced single mom, that I am staining myself as a dirty woman!!! Just kind of makes me think you know how in the world that makes any sense at all nor is it fair?
How a woman is dirty or stained or worthless if she has a previous lover before marriage but a man is a definite MAN if he has previous lovers…???