Serodiscordant couples who consistently and correctly use condoms can count on never spreading the infection. OK, 100% may be a bit high–people can get hit by asteroids, 100 year olds could get pregnant, etc–but for practical purposes, proper condom use means NO NEW INFECTION. You talk about “tens of thousands of acts of intercourse” in this country daily; the number is more like millions of acts. You’re probably right. And there are millions of serodiscordant couples. We can tell from their experience that if they properly use a condom (which includes immediately withdrawing if a condom breaks) they can count on not contracting HIV.
You’re saying two different things here. It’s either 100% i.e. that it never will happen or that there is a chance, albeit small, that it will.
Look at it this way: the most up to date research indicates that HIV transmission in unprotected sex, from male to female, occurs something like once out of every 500 to 1,000 acts, and from female to male something like once out of every 3,000 acts. So, lets say that with a condom failure, when used properly, results in an infection in 1 out of ever 1,000 acts (and there are many serodiscordant couples who use condoms for a for their whole lives without experiencing a failure). Then take the high end risk of 1/500 risk of transmission, plus the 1/1,000 risk of breakage, and the risk is something like 1 in 500,000. **That means that condoms are 99.9998% effective at preventing HIV transmission. ** So, I rounded to 100. (And that’s using the high estimates in the most dangerous scenario. With an HIV+ female, the number is more like 99.999998%).
99.9998% does not equal “no risk”. And we’re not talking about an anti-biotic curable STD here.
Maybe we are nitpicking, but I wanted to explain my position which is supported by epidemiology and is *not *naive. I suppose it is a reasonably fair statement to say that **“While it may be extremely unlikely to pass on HIV with proper condom use, it still can happen.” **(It is, after all, the same position the CDC takes, which is notoriously conservative in terms of HIV transmission). And if this was line from Catholics, I would be happy with it.
Which is my entire point; let’s not spread misinformation by saying there is a zero percent chance of it happening, which is what you do when you say things like “Serodiscordant couples who consistently and correctly use condoms can count on never spreading the infection”.
This is all, of course, beside the point.
I disagree. Part of the argument supporting abstaining from marital relations when one spouse is HIV positive is that there is really no foolproof way of protecting their spouse from infection, except abstaining.
It clearly would be a very grave sin to use a condom, even in this situation. As I can see it, the only options are to either abstain forever, or risk transmission. * Really, it is not clearly a sin to infect another with HIV, assuming the other person understands and accepts that risk. *
I’m not sure that it’s that clear. Think “tough love”. Think, “I don’t care how much you want to participate in this act, I love you too much to risk infecting you” as an argument that makes it not so clear.
It may, on the other hand, be a sin to refuse forever the marriage act to your spouse. I’m not very familiar with this area, but it seems to me, these are the questions that need to be asked. The only clear answer is that condoms are never acceptable.
Again, think “tough love”.