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Actually you are incorrect in this statement.When Pope John Paul II said that the church had no authority to ordain women, he was simplifying the doctrine that says that a priest must be male. The church at this time can’t ordain women, because that’s what is doctrine NOW. If the cardinals all came together, and under the guide of the Holy Spirit, and were inspired to allow women to be ordained, then it would be possible.
The reason the word “priestess” is used is in light of the above doucment which says that women can not be priests. So if they are not priests then they must be something different, hence the use of the word “priestess”.As an aside, why does everyone mock this view by saying that a woman couldn’t have the title “priest”, and we’d have to call them “priestesses”? The “-ess” suffix is a diminutive - meaning that it makes the word smaller and less important than the standard word. It’s no wonder that the feminists think that this is a sexist belief.
I think that’s pretty presumptuous in a debate about whether or not women should be ordained. The fact that someone believes that they should be ordained would, in essence, make them PRIESTS, not priestesses. If those people who believed that won the debate, they wouldn’t need to “be something different”.Actually you are incorrect in this statement.
The reason the word “priestess” is used is in light of the above doucment which says that women can not be priests. So if they are not priests then they must be something different, hence the use of the word “priestess”.
You, and others, can think it is sexist but it isn’t, its just the way it is.
Thats just the issue, according to paragraph 4 of Ordinatio Sacerdotalis there is no more debate. The issue is closed, the Church can not ordain women and this is to be held by all faithful Catholics. Those who debate it then are not being faithful.I think that’s pretty presumptuous in a debate about whether or not women should be ordained. The fact that someone believes that they should be ordained would, in essence, make them PRIESTS, not priestesses. If those people who believed that won the debate, they wouldn’t need to “be something different”.
Hi!The prohibition on married Priests has not always existed (right? The first Pope was married.) so it seems that it is not outside the realm of possibility that married Priests could come back.
What do you think?
I recently wrote this on this column but I’ll repeat it anyway.I
When Pope John Paul II said that the church had no authority to ordain women, he was simplifying the doctrine that says that a priest must be male. The church at this time can’t ordain women, because that’s what is doctrine NOW. If the cardinals all came together, and under the guide of the Holy Spirit, and were inspired to allow women to be ordained, then it would be possible.
The flip-side to this is that Pope John Paul II made it very hard for this to ever happen, because he said that anyone who didn’t feel that priests should be men were unfaithful to the church.
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Donna,Hi!
Good to see you still seeking the Truth. Well, as far as married priests - There were and are married priests. There is one right now at another parish by me. He was a minister from another religion. He converted and felt he was called. He has three wonderful children too. However, he will not be used to run a parish. The call of a priest is different than a minister. The priest marries the church and you can’t have two spouses and treat them both with equal love and devotion. So the Catholic Church does not have married priests run any parishes. Could this change in the future? Yes. Will it? I don’t think so but I could be wrong.
It is an infallible immutable article of the Catholic faith which the Church cannot later change. That’s what it means to be an infallible article of Catholic faith.…the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women
Well, it’s certainly valid teaching, but it’s not infallible.It is an infallible immutable article of the Catholic faith
So you do not believe that dogmas are infallible? Something that has been taught by the Church since the beginning is not infallible?Well, it’s certainly valid teaching, but it’s not infallible.
John
andHi!
Good to see you still seeking the Truth. Well, as far as married priests - There were and are married priests. There is one right now at another parish by me. He was a minister from another religion. He converted and felt he was called. He has three wonderful children too. However, he will not be used to run a parish. The call of a priest is different than a minister. The priest marries the church and you can’t have two spouses and treat them both with equal love and devotion. So the Catholic Church does not have married priests run any parishes. Could this change in the future? Yes. Will it? I don’t think so but I could be wrong.
Please check this weblink www.atonementonline.comI also believe that at least one of the Anglican Use Parishes is run by a married convert who was ordained to the priesthood.
I’m COMPLETELY with you in your experience and non-advocation. I’m in Allen, TX and our priest, Father Tim is a convert from the Epis. church. He is a husband, father, grandfather, and an incredibly gifted, and I think devinely guided priest. He had to ask the pope for special permission to not have to hold to a vow of celibacy. I’m not positive, but he waited a faithful 3 years for that approval. That’s how strong his Catholic faith and calling is.DonnaP
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ByzCath
Please check this weblink www.atonementonline.com
This is my parish. The pastor **is **married **runs the parish, **has five children, three of them married and has, I believe, 2 grandchildren.
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I’m not advocating a change in the current dicipline, but there are exceptions. If John Paul the Great said it was OK, then it’s OK with me.
I believe what meets the conditions of infallibility is infallible.So you do not believe that dogmas are infallible? Something that has been taught by the Church since the beginning is not infallible?
It simply hasn’t been manifestly demonstrated.Can 749 §3 No doctrine is understood to be infallibly defined unless this is manifestly demonstrated.