Married men who renounce their marriages to be priests

[CardManningFan]

Cardinal Stickler’s A Case for Clerical Celibacy notes that historically a married man could renounce his marriage and its privileges (remain 100% continent and separate from his wife) in order to enter the major orders. Is this still possible today? And how does one go about it?

The 1917 Code of Canon Law (canons 990-991) required a dispensation from the Holy See for married men to enter major orders (cf. pg. 151 {PDF pg. 5} fn. 13 and pg. 160-61 {PDF pg. 14-15} fn. 42-43 and accompanying text of canon lawyer Ed Peter’s 49 (2010) 110-116Chicago Studies). Before the 1917 Code, only a wife’s consent in the presence of the bishop was needed.

And if married men can become deacons with the wife’s consent under the 1983 Code, are they also able to become priests (enter major orders) under the '83 Code?

We usually hear about married convert priests. Must they, too, technically renounce their marriage and its privileges, i.e., remain 100% continent and separate from their wife? This doesn’t appear to happen (cf. this blog).

[BIBLEDRB]Matthew 19:29[/BIBLEDRB]
[BIBLEDRB]Luke 14:26[/BIBLEDRB]
Is it possible for a married Catholic man today to do this?

Thanks, and happy Easter!

 

[Pfaffenhoffen]

Cardinal Stickler’s A Case for Clerical Celibacy notes that historically a married man could renounce his marriage and its privileges (remain 100% continent and separate from his wife) in order to enter the major orders. Is this still possible today? And how does one go about it?

The 1917 Code of Canon Law (canons 990-991) required a dispensation from the Holy See for married men to enter major orders (cf. pg. 151 {PDF pg. 5} fn. 13 and pg. 160-61 {PDF pg. 14-15} fn. 42-43 and accompanying text of canon lawyer Ed Peter’s “Diaconal categories and clerical celibacy” Chicago Studies 49 (2010) 110-116). Before the 1917 Code, only a wife’s consent in the presence of the bishop was needed.

And if married men can become deacons with the wife’s consent under the 1983 Code, are they also able to become priests (enter major orders) under the '83 Code?

We usually hear about married convert priests. Must they, too, technically renounce their marriage and its privileges, i.e., remain 100% continent and separate from their wife? This doesn’t appear to happen (cf. this blog).

[BIBLEDRB]Matthew 19:29[/BIBLEDRB]
[BIBLEDRB]Luke 14:26[/BIBLEDRB]
Is it possible for a married Catholic man today to do this?

Thanks, and happy Easter!

Only if the wife wants to consecrate too.

 

[chevalier]

Only if the wife wants to consecrate too.

At least the consent of the wife is required. And I imagine it’d need to be very good, very clear consent, not just bringing a signed paper. Children would need to be taken care of as well. A man with underaged children would be very unlikely to be ordained.

 

[Sabrey]

May the joy and happiness around you today and always.
http://www.keyforex.info/g.gif

 

[CardManningFan]

Only if the wife wants to consecrate too.

Which canon of Canon Law mandates this?

We usually hear about married convert priests. Must they, too, technically renounce their marriage and its privileges, i.e., remain 100% continent and separate from their wife? This doesn’t appear to happen (cf. this blog).

The example I provided is of an Eastern Orthodox convert to the Byzantine Catholic rite. Historically, eastern rite married clergy were allowed to cohabitate with their wives, but they still were required to remain 100% continent (at least within a certain amount of time of exercising priestly functions at the altar). I wonder what the current Eastern Roman Catholic Code of Canon Law says about this.

As the canon lawyer Ed Peters’s articles show, there appears to be a lot of ambiguity regarding this issue.

 

[Geremia]

Only if the wife wants to consecrate too.

Are you referring to Council of Trullo canon 48.?

 

[Lapey]

Which canon of Canon Law mandates this?

The example I provided is of an Eastern Orthodox convert to the Byzantine Catholic rite. Historically, eastern rite married clergy were allowed to cohabitate with their wives, but they still were required to remain 100% continent (at least within a certain amount of time of exercising priestly functions at the altar). I wonder what the current Eastern Roman Catholic Code of Canon Law says about this.

As the canon lawyer Ed Peters’s articles show, there appears to be a lot of ambiguity regarding this issue.

canonlaw.info/PDF-USCCB%20re%20277.pdf

Mr. Peters has been refuted, but he feels this is only an opinion. The Church’s actions and practices show that married men ordained to the diaconate are not held to the rule of celibacy if they are married; thus eliminates the requirement of perfect and perpetual continence.

I do not claim to know anything of married men renouncing their marriage to be ordained.

 

[Lapey]

Cardinal Stickler’s A Case for Clerical Celibacy notes that historically a married man could renounce his marriage and its privileges (remain 100% continent and separate from his wife) in order to enter the major orders. Is this still possible today? And how does one go about it?

The 1917 Code of Canon Law (canons 990-991) required a dispensation from the Holy See for married men to enter major orders (cf. pg. 151 {PDF pg. 5} fn. 13 and pg. 160-61 {PDF pg. 14-15} fn. 42-43 and accompanying text of canon lawyer Ed Peter’s “Diaconal categories and clerical celibacy” Chicago Studies 49 (2010) 110-116). Before the 1917 Code, only a wife’s consent in the presence of the bishop was needed.

And if married men can become deacons with the wife’s consent under the 1983 Code, are they also able to become priests (enter major orders) under the '83 Code?The Diaconate is major orders. Yes married men can and are being ordained to major orders, permanent deacons; I am one. What is not part of this process is to be ordained to the priesthood. PDs are told and taught the PD is not a step top the priesthood. Now if a deacon is widowed he can apply to be accepted to priestly formation if he so chooses, but there is no promised acceptance. We had one in our diocese who was accepted by our bishop, but at his age it didn’t take long to realize it was not for him. There is no fast track in these cases,

We usually hear about married convert priests. Must they, too, technically renounce their marriage and its privileges, i.e., remain 100% continent and separate from their wife? This doesn’t appear to happen (cf. this blog).No, as in the Anglican priests who are being brought into the Latin Rite Church and in certain cases ordained to the priesthood in the Latin Rite. They are dispensed from celibacy, and therefore the requirement of PPC.

Is it possible for a married Catholic man today to do this?

Thanks, and happy Easter!