B
Bill_Pick
Guest
]Was individual interpretation of Scripture practiced by the early Christians or the Jews?
Which is ironic, given that Luther then proceeded to eliminate books from the bible and change the words of scripture.Luther’s SS held scripture was the only INFALLIBLE source of divine guidance, but NOT the ONLY source…
I don’t know if I would use the word malice, but don’t you find it at least a little amusing that Luther sought to change the book which he claimed to be the ultimate source of authority?Which of course is your interpretation, but as you note with Chesterton, yea verily. Regardless I see no malice in Luther’s Bible. Wikipedia to my surprise (they are getting better) has a pretty good article on Luther’s Bible if anyone wants to look it up.
I’m not sure what you’re saying with the above statement. If it’s to somehow state that Martin Luther’s practice of sola scriptura was likened to the early Church fathers for the first 400 years, it’s flawed in my opinion.Not to my knowledge, and I think it might be good to reacquaint all concerned with the Classic sola scriptura of Luther which was actually a theological throwback to Church doctrine the first 400 years of existence.
Many bishops and Church authorities had individual commentaries, like Ignatius or Augustine, et al. However in times of disagreement, such as heretical baptism, the authorities of the Church prevailed in the authentic teaching. There was never any acceptance of sola scriptura where someone tried to interpret a verse against the Church’s. If they did they were identified as heretical, like say, Marcion (who separated the OT God and NT God).Was individual interpretation of Scripture practiced by the early Christians or the Jews?
It was a bit of a mixed bag with the Jews. Talmudism was developing and of course there were a number of “schools” of exegesis, we’ve heard of some of them: Sadducees, Pharisees, etc.]Was individual interpretation of Scripture practiced by the early Christians or the Jews?
I don’t know if I would use the word malice, but don’t you find it at least a little amusing that Luther sought to change the book which he claimed to be the ultimate source of authority?
Are you speaking of the council of Jerusalem referenced in Acts?It was a bit of a mixed bag with the Jews. Talmudism was developing and of course there were a number of “schools” of exegesis, we’ve heard of some of them: Sadducees, Pharisees, etc.
At any rate, what there never was was a single, central clearing house of biblical orthodoxy.
With the church there was definitely a received body of doctrinal notions having to do with the christotropic nature of Old Testament revelation but the writings that eventually came to make up the New Testament were definitely a matter of subjective evaluation. Peter even says as much about the writings of Paul.
Of course, Peter and everyone else understand that there is a right way and a wrong way to interpret the Bible, but again, there isn’t anything like what the RCC claims today.
The closest we come is with the council of Jerusalem, where the issue of Gentile believers was dealt with. But even here, while there was a certain presidency (not by Peter, interestingly enough, and not only because he was implicated in the argument), the findings were achieved by way of synodical congress rather than a top-down fiat.
- Luther’s opinions about the OT Deuteros were shared by a growing number of scholars at the time that he lived and had always been permissible for scholars to hold.
- Luther’s translation of the the Bible contained not only these controverted Old Testament books but James, Hebrews and all the ones he is claimed to have wanted to jettison.
- At the time that Luther was expressing his opinions about all these books, which was both before and after his excommunication, nothing was ever said about them. Not a peep. No one ever had a problem with Luther’s canonical opinions until it became an issue within the last hundred years or so. This has more to do with the Catholic response to the rise of Protestant Fundamentalism than with any real issues having to do with the canon more generally.
The discussion was the debating that had taken place prior to Peter rising up and ruling.Yes, and then Barnabas and Paul give testimony about the work of the Spirit among the gentiles (v. 12), and then James gives a ruling based on correctness and consensus (vv 19-21).
This is the synodical blue print…there is discussion, testimony and ruling.
But James says, “This is MY judgement therefore.” (v. 19)The ruling was made by Peter. Barnabas and Paul gave testimony. James gave no special decision on the discussion, he affirmed what was spoken by Peter. The decree is attributed to the Council of Apostles and Presbyters and not to James personally.
Act 16:4 And as they passed through the cities, they delivered unto them the decrees for to keep, that were decreed by the apostles and ancients who were at Jerusalem.
I apologize for editing my post, but I had posted before completing my thoughts. (I have a pre-exam lecture/study this evening and two exams, one tomorrow and one Thursday.)But James says, “This is MY judgement therefore.” (v. 19)
This comes from Mathison’s book and he does provide solid evidence for the claim, though not enough to be held beyond a reasonable doubt. Mathison is Calvinist and most Catholic reviews of this book (such as that by Greg Krehbiel, good review BTW) dispute this point, though they tend to support the rest of his definition especially interpretation “in and by the Church.”I’m not sure what you’re saying with the above statement. If it’s to somehow state that Martin Luther’s practice of sola scriptura was likened to the early Church fathers for the first 400 years, it’s flawed in my opinion.
The canon of the Bible was not defined until around 400AD. Prior to that time, while they did refer to epistles and letters written by the Apostles to the individual Churches they instructed or admonished with those writings, Church teaching or doctrines were passed through oral tradition, the same as our Lord taught the Apostles and the Apostles taught their disciples/students.
Only mildly because in his own mind its likely he did not believe that was what he was doing. He eventually kept all the disputed books IIRC and his editing - obviously from a Protestant POV - was designed to correct past mistakes as he saw them and make Biblical language more understandable to the German people.I don’t know if I would use the word malice, but don’t you find it at least a little amusing that Luther sought to change the book which he claimed to be the ultimate source of authority?
:yup:This comes from Mathison’s book and he does provide solid evidence for the claim, though not enough to be held beyond a reasonable doubt. Mathison is Calvinist and most Catholic reviews of this book (such as that by Greg Krehbiel, good review BTW) dispute this point, though they tend to support the rest of his definition especially interpretation “in and by the Church.”
Personally, I wish I could find a review of stuff like this that did not originate from a Catholic, Lutheran or whatever writer. From an historical context only it would be interesting to see what a secular professional historian thought of his analysis. However, you take what you can get.