Martin Luther's translation of the bible

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It wasn’t an optional affectation. It was normal type, and even writing/printing by just people in longhand used it.

It was carried over from the way manuscripts were written prior to the invention of printing. Printing standardized the way the type was cast imitating the manuscript writing. So besides the long s, you had two “v” together for “w” or “v” for “u”, many standardized ligatures were also retained from the manuscript days. The easiest to find example would be the “ct” which looked like a backward “B” and many long s and f related ligatures.
Trivia: the German ß (that thing that looks like a Greek beta) is actually a combination of the long s and the short s or z: ſs / ſz (ſʒ). For example, Schloß = Schloss (‘lock’ (as in the one you put keys in), ‘hinge’, ‘castle’; the English cognate would be ‘slot’) or Straße = Strasse (‘street’, ‘road’).
That is why Latin was the language of choice for scholarly writings. It was already standardized, both in spelling and in type.
That being said, grammatically, a person’s word order and syntax when writing Latin could be (and was) influenced by his own native language, especially in the Middle Ages (this is especially true for lesser scholars who are not exactly masters of Latin to the point that they can play with it and show off). And let’s not get to the different regional pronunciations. 😃
 
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patrick457:
Trivia: the German ß (that thing that looks like a Greek beta) is actually a combination of the long s and the short s or z: ſs / ſz (ſʒ). For example, Schloß = Schloss (‘lock’ (as in the one you put keys in), ‘hinge’, ‘castle’; the English cognate would be ‘slot’) or Straße = Strasse (‘street’, ‘road’).
😃

In printed “black letter” books the weird lettering and ligature quantity was increased by an order of magnitude! 😃 German books used a “black letter” type font for quite a bit longer than the English printer, who adopted Roman and Italic fonts fairly rapidly. 😉
 
There were at least 18 Catholic bibles in German before Luther published his bible. source
Many of these 18 Bibles are in reality little more than interlinear translation aids—Latin Bibles with marginal notes in German. And some are only partial works—say, only the New Testament.

Several factors make Luther’s Bible innovative for its time. First is that his German Bible was intended from the beginning for broad general use by the lay public and its publication did a great deal to stimulate literacy education. The versions that preceded Luther were intended for academic/ecclesiastical readers, not the lay public.

As has been pointed out, Luther referred to the underlying Greek and Hebrew texts to prepare his translation; the German Bibles you’re referring to used the Vulgate.

And finally, Luther’s Bible (at least as a final product) was a complete translation—including the deuterocanonical, Psalm 151 and the Prayer of Manasseh.
 
Many of these 18 Bibles are in reality little more than interlinear translation aids—Latin Bibles with marginal notes in German. And some are only partial works—say, only the New Testament.

Several factors make Luther’s Bible innovative for its time. First is that his German Bible was intended from the beginning for broad general use by the lay public and its publication did a great deal to stimulate literacy education. The versions that preceded Luther were intended for academic/ecclesiastical readers, not the lay public.

As has been pointed out, Luther referred to the underlying Greek and Hebrew texts to prepare his translation; the German Bibles you’re referring to used the Vulgate.

And finally, Luther’s Bible (at least as a final product) was a complete translation—including the deuterocanonical, Psalm 151 and the Prayer of Manasseh.
Unfortunately no store near me has a bible with 74 books ( the 74 Th being the Prayer of Manasseh ) 😦
 
In my opinion, “stilted” is often in the eyes of the beholder. I don’t think Wycliffe’s translation or the original Douay-Rheims is hard to read grammatically, except perhaps because the sentences are long. To me, the hard thing is deciphering the old spellings and occasionally the unusual alphabet. (I believe Wycliffe’s Bible in particular used the letter thorn or þ, which is no longer a letter in English. Modern editions of his work seem to replace the þ with a “th”, unless I’m mistaken and he didn’t use it. Also, the original Douay-Rheims Bible often uses a letter known as “long s” or ſ – to me, that letter looks more like an “f” without the cross bar than an s.)

Here’s Hebrews 1:1-3 in the original Rheims edition:

“Diversely and many waies in times past God speaking to the fathers in the prophets: last of al in these daies hath spoken to vs in his Sonne, whom he hath appointed heire of al, by whom he made also the vvorldes. Who being the brightnesse of his glorie, and the figure of his substance, and carying al things by the word of his power, making purgation of sinnes, sitteth on the right hand of the Maieftie in the high places.” source

To me, that is not stilted.
I love Wycliffe’s translation. Old/middle English to me is one of the most beautiful languages ever. I like the sound of it better than French or Italian (or modern English). Of course it comes from German but doesn’t have the harshness of the sound of German.

I do think we owe a thanks to the Reformers - Luther in particular - for translating the Bible into the vernacular languages, or at least starting that trend. It gave everyone access to the Gospel, not just the educated and elite.

My understanding is that Luther’s Bible was hugely popular in Germany and quite respected critically - I have never read it and don’t know how well it is holding up in terms of accuracy. But Luther was a pretty smart guy ;); I would be surprised if it was too far off even to this day…
 
I see where this thread has been relocated out of Sacred Scripture and over into an area that includes threads on Islam and NFL quarterbacks.

Why was this done?
 
My understanding is that Luther’s Bible was hugely popular in Germany and quite respected critically - I have never read it and don’t know how well it is holding up in terms of accuracy. But Luther was a pretty smart guy ;); I would be surprised if it was too far off even to this day…
Not sure if it entirely proves your point, but when Catholic translators like Jerome Emser were commissioned to pen a Rome-approved German translation, they almost entirely plagiarized Luther’s work, while simultaneously criticizing Luther’s skills in translating. 🤷

One criticism Emser made (and that polemicists today still unfortunately make) is that Luther added the word “allein” (alone) to Romans 3:28 so Paul would sound like a proponent of Luther’s understanding of Justification – ‘Faith Alone.’ Except these polemicists neglect that fact that translation is often more art than science; words that mean something in one language may not even exist in another. The “alone” is necessary in the context, to distinguish from “the works of the Law” in the second phrase, as fellow German Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI even noted.

So it must not be too far off. 😉
 
Not sure if it entirely proves your point, but when Catholic translators like Jerome Emser were commissioned to pen a Rome-approved German translation, they almost entirely plagiarized Luther’s work, while simultaneously criticizing Luther’s skills in translating. 🤷

One criticism Emser made (and that polemicists today still unfortunately make) is that Luther added the word “allein” (alone) to Romans 3:28 so Paul would sound like a proponent of Luther’s understanding of Justification – ‘Faith Alone.’ Except these polemicists neglect that fact that translation is often more art than science; words that mean something in one language may not even exist in another. The “alone” is necessary in the context, to distinguish from “the works of the Law” in the second phrase, as fellow German Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI even noted.

So it must not be too far off. 😉
Here is part of the selection from Pope Emeritus Benedict: “Luther’s phrase: ‘faith alone’ is true, if it is not opposed to faith in charity, in love.” source

Assuming that is the part steido01 is referring to, I don’t think it suggests that the word “alone” is necessary, only that the word can possibly be acceptable, depending on what the translator means. That does not by itself absolve Luther’s addition of the word “alone.” Criticism of Luther on that score could still be supported without running afoul of Pope Emeritus Benedict, so long as good reasons can be given for rejecting that addition or the idea that it was added with the possible acceptable sense in mind.
 
Here is part of the selection from Pope Emeritus Benedict: “Luther’s phrase: ‘faith alone’ is true, if it is not opposed to faith in charity, in love.” source

Assuming that is the part steido01 is referring to, I don’t think it suggests that the word “alone” is necessary, only that the word can possibly be acceptable, depending on what the translator means. That does not by itself absolve Luther’s addition of the word “alone.” Criticism of Luther on that score could still be supported without running afoul of Pope Emeritus Benedict, so long as good reasons can be given for rejecting that addition or the idea that it was added with the possible acceptable sense in mind.
Fair point, and thank you for clarifying. I should have been more clear; I didn’t mean to prop up Pope Benedict as defending Luther’s translation as necessarily the best translation choice, by any any means. I was simply noting that Luther’s insertion of the word was a legitimate academic decision and is not necessarily wrong, even to the most stringent Catholic. Luther was simply writing in the language of his people.

For those who haven’t suffered the silly battles on this verse before, here’s Romans 3:28:

Douay Rheims: For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law.

Luther’s German: So halten wir nun dafür, daß der Mensch gerecht werde ohne des Gesetzes Werke, allein durch den Glauben.

*Sloppy German Transliteration *(sorry, haven’t touched my German much since 2011): Therefore hold we to this, that the Man justification receives without his Law Works, [but] alone through his Faith.

Oops. I added a word.
 
Not sure if it entirely proves your point, but when Catholic translators like Jerome Emser were commissioned to pen a Rome-approved German translation, they almost entirely plagiarized Luther’s work, while simultaneously criticizing Luther’s skills in translating. 🤷

One criticism Emser made (and that polemicists today still unfortunately make) is that Luther added the word “allein” (alone) to Romans 3:28 so Paul would sound like a proponent of Luther’s understanding of Justification – ‘Faith Alone.’ Except these polemicists neglect that fact that translation is often more art than science; words that mean something in one language may not even exist in another. The “alone” is necessary in the context, to distinguish from “the works of the Law” in the second phrase, as fellow German Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI even noted.

So it must not be too far off. 😉
Yes, I have heard some Catholics praise Luther’s translation. I personally stand by the King James 1611 translation - it is my language and I am on firmer ground saying it is very accurate and beautifully translated into English. But I agree that Luther had the training and knowledge to translate, no doubt. He read the Bible once a year. And it is amusing to see the Catholics hit the vernacular translation of the Bible trail with such vengeance and commitment. (better late than never I guess) 😃 (…and we are smart and usually get stuff right, you gotta admit)
 
If anyone reads the link I posted, you will find it a great read, very interesting.
 
I took a course on the Reformation/Revolution. The Professor was a devout, funny, and detailed man within mode of presentation. He said that the selling of indulgences is a protestant slant on history that many Catholics buy today and accept as `truth’.

Keep studying!

p.s. He had great fear for the secular rulers who protected him. For he obey them rather then his heretical volition, the volition to rip out James and Revelation from the New Testament.
The course you took taught you that Luther wanted to rip out James and Revelation? And that “secular rulers” circumvented his volition to rip them out? Where did you take this course? I hope you can still get your money back for it.
 
The course you took taught you that Luther wanted to rip out James and Revelation? And that “secular rulers” circumvented his volition to rip them out? Where did you take this course? I hope you can still get your money back for it.
:rotfl:
 
I took a course on the Reformation/Revolution. The Professor was a devout, funny, and detailed man within mode of presentation. He said that the selling of indulgences is a protestant slant on history that many Catholics buy today and accept as `truth’.

Keep studying!

p.s. He had great fear for the secular rulers who protected him. For he obey them rather then his heretical volition, the volition to rip out James and Revelation from the New Testament.
The rulers were not secular, and he didn’t rip books out the Holy Scriptures, and it was Not a revolution
 
I took a course on the Reformation/Revolution. The Professor was a devout, funny, and detailed man within mode of presentation. He said that the selling of indulgences is a protestant slant on history that many Catholics buy today and accept as `truth’.

Keep studying!

p.s. He had great fear for the secular rulers who protected him. For he obey them rather then his heretical volition, the volition to rip out James and Revelation from the New Testament.
I have heard it claimed that Luther wanted to tear out books, but his friends talked him out of it. This is the first time I’ve heard that he was, essentially, threatened not to. I have yet to see a source for the former. Do you have one for the latter?

Jon
 
Unfortunately no store near me has a bible with 74 books ( the 74 Th being the Prayer of Manasseh ) 😦
Well, one can put these two together.

cph.org/p-11334-the-lutheran-study-bible-hardback.aspx

cph.org/p-19305-the-apocrypha-the-lutheran-edition-with-notes.aspx

You not only get the 74 books, but also

Old Greek Esther
Susanna
Bel and the Dragon

The Prayer of Azariah
The Song of the Three Holy Children
The Prayer of Manasseh

1 Esdras
2 Esdras
3 Maccabees (Ptolemaika)
4 Maccabees
Psalm 151

Jon
 
Hi Steve,
How does Martin Luther’s German translation of the Bible hold up today? I read where he took almost two years to do it, and eventually sold 100,000 of them. This would have been in the early 1500’s.

Did he make any huge mistakes? I am assuming that the Catholic church eventually authorized a German edition- did it vary much from Luther’s?
Luther’s ‘problems’ with several books of the NT came completely to the surface when he ‘translated’ the NT into German in early 1522. Luther’s translating the Bible into German is often portrayed as his finest achievement. I would agree, but not for the reasons that his supporters normally suggest. The “Legend” of Luther would have us believe that he was an incredibly brilliant Scholar and that he was gifted in Greek, Hebrew, the Classics, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, etc., etc. His “most excellent” translation of the Scriptures into German is often hailed as being an astonishing accomplishment. However, often when this is mentioned, the fact that there were at least 26 German translations printed on the printing press BEFORE Luther’s is not. This begs the question:

If there were already 26 Bibles in German available in 1522, then what was it, specifically and exactly (of course) that made it ‘necessary’ for Luther to do his own translation? What was it that compelled Luther to produce the 27th (or whatever) translation into German?

What would be truly astonishing about the story of Luther’s translation would be if it were actually true, meaning true as in it being an effort independent of any other German translation. That is not at all likely and in fact, it is virtually impossible as suggested by Henry Clay Vedder, a Protestant Scholar:

“In a letter to his friend Lange, dated December 18th, (1521) he announces his intention to translate the New Testament into German, in terms necessitating the inference that the work had not yet begun. On March 30, 1522, he writes Spalatin that he has translated the entire New Testament…This leaves little more than ten weeks for the completion of the work…….
**
It would be difficult in any case to believe that a complete translation of the entire New Testament could have been made by a man of Luther’s limited attainments in Greek, and with the imperfect apparatus that he possessed, in the short space of ten weeks. **And, as we shall see, another task occupied a part of his attention and time during these very weeks. **A minister today, who has had the Greek course of a college and seminary, is a far better scholar than Luther. Let such a man, if he thinks Luther’s achievement possible, attempt the accurate translation of a single chapter of the New Testament – such a translation as he would be willing to print under his own name – and multiply the time consumed by two hundred and sixty chapters. He will speedily be convinced that the feat attributed to Luther is an impossible one. **What then? Is the whole story false? That, too, is impossible – the main facts are too well attested. The solution of an apparently insoluble contradiction is a very simple one: Luther did not make an independent translation; he never claimed he did; none of his contemporaries made that claim for him. It is only later admirers who have made this statement to enhance his glory, just as they have unduly exaggerated the paucity of the Scriptures and the popular ignorance of them before Luther’s day, for the same purpose. We now know that both these assertions are untrue to historic fact, and have misled many unwary persons into inferences far indeed from the truth. The two assertions are so intimately connected, that in showing either to be unfounded the other is also and necessarily controverted.” Henry Clay Vedder, “The Reformation in Germany”, pg. 169-170

Here we have Vedder, a reputable Protestant Scholar (actually a Professor of Church history at Crozer Theological Seminary, Upland, Pennsylvania), pointing to Luther’s “limited attainments” in Greek. If Luther was “qualified” to translate from Greek, then hundreds of thousands of modern day “not so great” Scholars would be much more qualified.

What actually IS astonishing is that Luther completed his translation of the entire New Testament in only 10 or 11 weeks, and only part time at that. It took Jerome decades to produce his translation to Latin in the Vulgate. By comparison, Luther’s ‘translation’ was a slap dash effort by an average Scholar. How could he have believed that such a rushed effort was worthy of being considered a valid respectful actual translation of the Holy Scriptures?
 
Thanks, Topper. That info seems more realistic to me than some of the other references to Luther’s translation of the Bible.

The Legend grows taller on down the line…at reformation time as they say.

Mary.
 
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