C
ChristsSoldier
Guest
HI ALL!
New to posting here, have been reading here for years.
Will most likely change my user name -I’m not happy with it (looking for something that defines my passion for defending my faith)
I hate to bring up a 'dead horse’ topic, but recently wrote a paper for a college class on the ‘Alama’ argument… Thought I’d post it hear for feedback. (sorry for its length)
You’ll notice a lot of regurgitation from old treads and articles cited here (all cited of course).
Nice being here and meeting you!
Blessings,
CS
…The relevance of this argument still evades me. The word ‘Almah’ is Hebrew for either ‘young maiden’ or ‘virgin’ The argument that is against the word meaning ‘virgin’ most often states that the use of this word in Isaiah 7:14 was in reference to a young married woman known to Isaiah , more importantly a woman in the Davidic line. This is an important point when taken in context with the time and national situation that the prophecy was made. In this century however, the point of almah not meaning virgin seems more an attempt to refute Matthew 1:23 citing of Isaiah 7:14 or to discredit the belief (prophecy) that Jesus of Nazareth was born of a virgin.
In studying the Hebrew Old Testament, one will find the word ‘almah’ used seven times. These occurrences are Genesis. 24:43; Exodus. 2:8; Psalms. 68:25; Proverbs. 30:19; Song of Solomon. 1:3 & 6:8; and lastly Isaiah. 7:14.ii When taking these occurrences into context of the verse it is obvious that, for (at least) the first six occurrences, the word refers to a sexually pure woman whom has not had sexual relations with a man. As the Hebrew lexicon notes (stongs 5959) “++++ There is no instance where it can be proved that this word designates a young woman who is not a virgin”.
These references occur identically in the Septuagint leaving no question to the meaning, the The Septuagint is the 250B.C. translation of the Hewbrew O.T. performed by a group of 70 rabbis.iv The Septuagint is the oldest translation of the Hebrew text and is invaluable in understanding the original meaning of the accident text. This translation live on in the revised Hebrew Old Testament, which employs Greek names and words such as: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers [Arithmoi], and Deuteronomy. The Septuagint would go on to become the version of the Old Testament used by the followers of Jesus. In fact, if Luke 4:14 is to be believed, Jesus himself taught in the synagogues of Nazareth while reading from the Septuagint where he himself declares a prophecy of Isaiah’s fulfilled (class text, and Dankenbring’s articlevii on archeological evidence support Greek being the dominant language in Galilee at this time).
New to posting here, have been reading here for years.
Will most likely change my user name -I’m not happy with it (looking for something that defines my passion for defending my faith)
I hate to bring up a 'dead horse’ topic, but recently wrote a paper for a college class on the ‘Alama’ argument… Thought I’d post it hear for feedback. (sorry for its length)
You’ll notice a lot of regurgitation from old treads and articles cited here (all cited of course).
Nice being here and meeting you!
Blessings,
CS
…The relevance of this argument still evades me. The word ‘Almah’ is Hebrew for either ‘young maiden’ or ‘virgin’ The argument that is against the word meaning ‘virgin’ most often states that the use of this word in Isaiah 7:14 was in reference to a young married woman known to Isaiah , more importantly a woman in the Davidic line. This is an important point when taken in context with the time and national situation that the prophecy was made. In this century however, the point of almah not meaning virgin seems more an attempt to refute Matthew 1:23 citing of Isaiah 7:14 or to discredit the belief (prophecy) that Jesus of Nazareth was born of a virgin.
In studying the Hebrew Old Testament, one will find the word ‘almah’ used seven times. These occurrences are Genesis. 24:43; Exodus. 2:8; Psalms. 68:25; Proverbs. 30:19; Song of Solomon. 1:3 & 6:8; and lastly Isaiah. 7:14.ii When taking these occurrences into context of the verse it is obvious that, for (at least) the first six occurrences, the word refers to a sexually pure woman whom has not had sexual relations with a man. As the Hebrew lexicon notes (stongs 5959) “++++ There is no instance where it can be proved that this word designates a young woman who is not a virgin”.
These references occur identically in the Septuagint leaving no question to the meaning, the The Septuagint is the 250B.C. translation of the Hewbrew O.T. performed by a group of 70 rabbis.iv The Septuagint is the oldest translation of the Hebrew text and is invaluable in understanding the original meaning of the accident text. This translation live on in the revised Hebrew Old Testament, which employs Greek names and words such as: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers [Arithmoi], and Deuteronomy. The Septuagint would go on to become the version of the Old Testament used by the followers of Jesus. In fact, if Luke 4:14 is to be believed, Jesus himself taught in the synagogues of Nazareth while reading from the Septuagint where he himself declares a prophecy of Isaiah’s fulfilled (class text, and Dankenbring’s articlevii on archeological evidence support Greek being the dominant language in Galilee at this time).