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AndersonJN
Guest
If mary never sinned, why does she call God savior in Luke 1:47 (And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior- [NASB])?
My word, you’re right! that salvific act must have been temporal only and could niether apply backwards nor forwards! How silly i am to have believed that Jesus death for once and **for all time **could ever mean in the past, present and future. Well, i’m off to be an atheist now since a God who doesn’t have the power to transcend time and save whomever He chooses is less preferable…If mary never sinned, why does she call God savior in Luke 1:47 (And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior- [NASB])?
Catholics agree that Mary needed a savior.If mary never sinned, why does she call God savior in Luke 1:47 (And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior- [NASB])?
It doesn’t say “all but Jesus have sinned”. It says “all have sinned”.then why does romans 3:23, and other verses like this say ALL have sinned and fall short. Jesus didn’t, but he was part God. Mary, was 100 human.
Obviously Mary wasn’t a sinner, my friend, and I guess your question is a smart challenge to better reflect upon the theme.If mary never sinned, why does she call God savior in Luke 1:47 (And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior- [NASB])?
Jesus was not part God. He was fully God and fully Human. Do you believe Luke 1:37, “For with God nothing is impossible.” When God made Adam and Eve, he made them sinless. Why is it hard to believe that Mary was born sinless? Remember, we are freed(cleansed) of original sin at our baptism, while Mary was presevered from it at her conception. But, in both cases, it is Jesus who is the Savior. Mary had every opportunity to sin in her life time, but she was more faithfull and understood what God had planned. That is what a faithfull Catholic and/or Protestant Christian should be like. Obiedient.then why does romans 3:23, and other verses like this say ALL have sinned and fall short. Jesus didn’t, but he was part God. Mary, was 100 human.
First off, Jesus is 100% God and 100% man. It’s called the hypostatic union - he wasn’t partly God. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit all existed throughout eternity. Jesus became incarnate in the Blessed Virgin and became man, thus we have the hypostatic union.then why does romans 3:23, and other verses like this say ALL have sinned and fall short. Jesus didn’t, but he was part God. Mary, was 100 human.
your understanding of what is called the Incarnation is flawed. Jesus was not part anything, He was FULL God and FULL man (in all things except sin, as His august Mother).then why does romans 3:23, and other verses like this say ALL have sinned and fall short. Jesus didn’t, but he was part God. Mary, was 100 human.
Read the entire third chapter of Romans. Paul is saying that all peoples — both Jew and gentile — bear the burden of sin. He isn’t making a categorical claim about each individual human being. Scripture specifically tells us that NOT all individual people have personally sinned. Consider Luke 1:6, discussing Zechariah and Elizabeth: “And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blamelessly.”then why does romans 3:23, and other verses like this say ALL have sinned and fall short. Jesus didn’t, but he was part God. Mary, was 100 human.
why does it seem that for every levy that a good percentage of protestants make about how catholics “don’t read the bible” one can easily point out multiple instances that show that a good percentage of protestants read only about 30 verses of the bible and then ignore all the meaning which is actually carried by the CONTEXT of what they SHOULD be reading…?Read the entire third chapter of Romans. Paul is saying that all peoples — both Jew and gentile — bear the burden of sin. He isn’t making a categorical claim about each individual human being. Scripture specifically tells us that NOT all individual people have personally sinned. Consider Luke 1:6, discussing Zechariah and Elizabeth: “And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blamelessly.”
Ah, no he would only be a savior for the first one who fell into the hole. For the second one, he would merely be only a “watchman” Eze 3, 33 and thus not a savior. Nice try though.If a person is walking along and falls into a deep hole and a man throws a rope down the hole and pulls that person out -he has saved that person. If another person is walking along and the same man warns the person of the hole and the person avoids falling into the hole is the man not also the second person’s savior as well?
We were saved by Jesus after we “fell into the hole”, Mary was saved before she could “fall into the hole” she still needed a Savior in order for her to not “fall into the hole”.
Was not also Enoch made without sin? Hebrews 11:5We don’t claim that Mary saved herself, or that she was able to enter heaven without God’s action. We simply claim (or rather, we simply accept and pass on the revelation given by God) that God made her perfect, without sin, at the moment of her conception.
BTW, don’t babies who die without any personal sin also need a savior?
None, a baby is born without sin. Romans 5:12 speaks of “active aroist” sin, that is each and every person activily sinning. Read Gen 3, Romans 8 we are simply born into an enviroment of sin behaviors. A baby does not sin, it is just silly to say otherwise.It doesn’t say “all but Jesus have sinned”. It says “all have sinned”.
But ignoring the case of Jesus, what sin has an aborted baby committed? Remember, the scripture says “all have sinned”. That is active, personal sin, not simply having a “sin nature” or being affected by original sin. So what sin has a baby committed?
Luke 7:47Who would be more grateful, the one who was saved after falling or the one who was saved from falling? I argue it would be the latter.