Mary and her children

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Well, look at history, you mentioned the early church, well post first century and prereformation who and where were these Christians? And who were these disciples of the Apostles? And what does there writings reveal? It reveals Catholic teaching, that’s why the early creeds (which were what the church believed) i.e., Apostles and Nicean creeds say…one holy Catholic and Apostolic church. This is “evidence” and there is much more to offer.
😛 that is no evidence! We use the terms today, we have simply kept the meaning of the early church, and not the meaning the Roman Catholics have made it.

catholic = universal

There is only one “universal” church, only one “catholic” group of followers of Christ. That group stretches across the world, goes back in history and forward in time, and comes under many different headings.

But it is not one organisation which has adopted the term, and uses it to try to state that all outside are not part of God’s family.
So, you are limiting yourself to the only valid interpretation of scripture?
You mean like Roman Catholicism has done? Not at all 😉
Can you give some examples?
I know of Roman Catholics that teach that Mary was not a perpetual virgin. The general consensus on this forum would be that they disagree with this 😉
Well, then what are the “essentials?”
I do believe I gave a list before…somewhere.

Possibly that we have all sinned, that is pretty essential.
That God is the only God, the creator of all.
That without God, we are destined for hell.
That God loved us so much that he gave His only son to die, so that we may be saved.
That Jesus is God.
That we must accept Jesus and follow Him.

Thats a start. Any you wish to add?
…even the Bereans in Acts 17 needed Paul to show them the correct interpretation of scripture.
Acts 17:2 Paul reasons with the scriptures.
Acts 17:11 the Bereans come to know the true teaching of the scriptures from Paul.
The Bereans came to know Jesus Christ in the OT scriptures NOT by self study alone (sola scriptura), but by Paul revealing the truth to them. Within Protestantism there is no ceratain criteria by which we know what is the truth.
Nope, no dice.

First, it does not say that they had interpreted the scripture incorrectly, only that they were told (from v3) “This Jesus I am proclaiming to you is the Christ”, and checked their scriptures, and agreed.

Second, they only had the OT, so ‘sola scripture’ has nothing to do with them. ‘sola scripture’ is not just about the OT, but the NT too.

And thirdly, this discussion really should be over here. 🙂
 
Which makes the Jews wrong about Joseph being the biological father of Jesus …

and wrong about Jesus having any biological brothers. 👍
Could you, possibly, try to use some logic in your posts? that would be swell 🙂 👍

The two statements have no causal link in ‘wrongness’.

Jews look at an older married couple (at least in their late 40s, if not older) and assume that all their children are their children.

Unbeknown to them, the first child was actually of God, not the earthly father.

That is the source of their error - are you now going to claim that all the other siblings they knew of were likewise conceived? Perhaps by a variety of other gods, so that they were only half-siblings? :rolleyes:
Actually, you only posted references to “brothers.” Where does it say that Mary actually bore them?
Sorry 🙂 victus’ smugness distracted me from the fact that he was putting words into my mouth. No, Scripture no more says she actually bore them than it states she was actually a virgin after Jesus was born. That is not my argument.
 
Could you, possibly, try to use some logic in your posts? that would be swell 🙂 👍

The two statements have no causal link in ‘wrongness’.

Jews look at an older married couple (at least in their late 40s, if not older) and assume that all their children are their children.

Unbeknown to them, the first child was actually of God, not the earthly father.

That is the source of their error - are you now going to claim that all the other siblings they knew of were likewise conceived? Perhaps by a variety of other gods, so that they were only half-siblings? :rolleyes:

Sorry 🙂 victus’ smugness distracted me from the fact that he was putting words into my mouth. No, Scripture no more says she actually bore them than it states she was actually a virgin after Jesus was born. That is not my argument.
I am saying what I said before: The Jews called it like they saw it and were wrong about 1) their assumption that Joseph was the biological father of Jesus and 2) they were wrong to assume that Jesus had biological siblings.

Unbeknown to them, Mary and Joseph had no other children.

Since Scripture says that Mary did not bore other children, how do you come to the conclusion that she did?
 
If Mary was not a virgin after the birth of Jesus, then she was still a virgin during her marriage to Joseph up and till the birth right? What would have been the point or purpose of that? Was sex forbidden between husband and wife during pregnancy or something? Do you have a good answer to that question?
 
%between%
Who has the Holy Spirit? Just one person (the pope)? Just the top group (bishops)? Any specific group within the church? Or everyone who follows Christ?
But having the Holy Spirit does not mean you can interpret and understand Scripture, does it?

Just ask Peter. Just ask the Ethiopian Eunuch.

Why does the Holy Spirit ask Phillip to interpret for the Eunuch? Why couldn’t He have just entered the Eunuch Himself?
 
Or, that it was the Jews belief that he was the biological son of Joseph.

And the same could be said of the assumptions you are making. You believe “brothers” necessarily means the biological sons of Mary, and we’ve given you ample examples of the other probabilities.
In my mind, if I had been given the enormous task of raising the **Son of God **(let’s pause on that a moment), if I had experienced what the Holy Couple did at the Nativity (the wise men and their gifts, shepherds, etc), if I had had to flee to Egypt to avoid Herod’s order, living out a “normal” married life would have been the farthest thing from my mind!
These were devout Jews who’s entire life was focused on the coming of the Messiah! He comes, and to your house!! The Kingdom of God is at hand!
Sorry, all need or desire for anything else in this life goes away!
If Jesus Christ were in your house, would you do as Martha and go about your regular business, or would you do as Mary and remain at His feet and in His service?
 
Why would Jesus say to St. John “This is my mother”? If Jesus had his biological brother, he would say this to that person, but no, he said to St. John who is not his biological brother.
 
Originally Posted by Nicene View Post
Showing disrespect for his mother? And in public? What proof do you offer that Jesus needed to rebuke his mother in public? Scripture please.
What proof do you offer that Jesus rebuked his mother? (scripture please )

Umm, it was a question. You are the one who made the assertion. It appears you are attempting to avoid the questions.

As I stated, scripture please to back up your assertion.

Peace and God Bless
Nicene
 
OK, a few problems here.
Once Jesus returns, thats the ‘end of everything’, right? There is no longer earth and heaven, there is no longer any death, there is just God’s new creation, his people living with him, and those outside outside.

So, the idea of being able to “remain until [Jesus’] return” does not mean live forever, but live forever in this creation. That is, not be able to die. The idea is that he cannot die “now”, “here”, because of Jesus’ (misread) claim, he cannot die “after” because there will be no more death.

That is, the “until” is stating that the condition (not die) runs for a period of time (now => Jesus’ return), from which the normal situation would apply (heaven - no death).
If the focus of the issue is death, then, for John to be able to remain and not experience death means that a change within his earthly nature is needed for this to occur. So, if the prophecy did indeed occur (let’s assume that it did), we could ask when was John transformed from being a mortal person, to being immortal? At the coming of Christ?.. or sometime during his earthly life? I would think that the transformation happened sometimes during his earthly life ( for how could he have survived for two thousand years?). Therefore, for John, the event of the coming of Christ, where the dead in Christ will be risen, does not concern him personally, since he is already transformed, wouldn’t you think? Therefore, since for John, the coming of Christ is not his time of change from being a mortal to becoming immortal, then the statement that he would not die “until the coming of Christ” does not imply that he will experience such a change at the coming of Christ, making that statement…it’s meaning,being simply that he will never experience death.
Likewise, the “until” in Matthew stating that the condition (no sex) runs for a period of time (start of marriage => Jesus’ birth), from which the normal situation would apply (in marriage - sex).
That is good exegesis. Not proof, just heavily suggesting.
If you use this type of exegesis for John, that is, John will be changed from being a mortal to being an immortal “without going through the process of dying”, then, in my opinion, the same should be implied for Mary as well; that is, Mary, at the birth of Jesus becomes a mother while still remaining a virgin. If the implication of John is that he will never experience death, then, what is wrong in assuming the scriptures **suggesting ** the same for Mary; therefore implying that she will always remain a virgin?
The problem is, it is like trying to prove that Jesus wasn’t the Christ, using the Koran.
It’s more like trying to prove that Jesus is divine by showing (proving)that the early christians, the followers of the apostles, understood the gosple in the such a way. You know as well as I do, that some christians, in using scriptures only, denie the divinity of Christ through their own private interpretations…
As to “Abraham’s bosom”… I am hesitant to ask, but what else could it mean but his chest? What else was it but a sign of comfort/friendship/care?
.

Where was Lazarous, after he died? The scriptures speaks of Abraham’s bosom… was he in heaven, or was he in hell? What proof do we have?
The problem here is that as of John 7, Jesus’ brothers did not believe. Thus, those referred to as 'brothers of Jesus" at this stage were not part of the disciples - the 12, or others. Thus, they were different people.
Would this include James? We know that Jesus chose twelve apostles to be the foundation of His church .After Judas died, the apostles replaced him with a disciple **who had to have been a follower of Jesus from the beginning. **.
St Paul became an apostle after receiving a revelation of the risen Christ, and through his work, became a powerful apostle.However, he identifies the pillars of the church as being three apostles, he, being excluded; although James, the Lord’s brother being one of the pillars. If James was an unbeliever, what happened in order for him to have experienced such a powerful change, in order for him to become one of the three pillars of the church, being above most of the apostles? The scripture is totaly silent on any type of conversion experienced by James, althpough we know a great deal about the conversion of Saul.
Having first century documents ( gosple of the Hebrews) identifying James as being one of the twelve clearly solves the problem, doesn’t it? How could James be one of the three pillars of the church, above most of the apostles, if, in order to replace Judas, a disciple who had followed Jesus from the beginning of His minitry, had to be chosen? Simply, that, James was already one of the twelve.

Andre
 
If the focus of the issue is death, then, for John to be able to remain and not experience death means that a change within his earthly nature is needed for this to occur. So, if the prophecy did indeed occur (let’s assume that it did), we could ask when was John transformed from being a mortal person, to being immortal? At the coming of Christ?.. or sometime during his earthly life? I would think that the transformation happened sometimes during his earthly life ( for how could he have survived for two thousand years?). Therefore, for John, the event of the coming of Christ, where the dead in Christ will be risen, does not concern him personally, since he is already transformed, wouldn’t you think? Therefore, since for John, the coming of Christ is not his time of change from being a mortal to becoming immortal, then the statement that he would not die “until the coming of Christ” does not imply that he will experience such a change at the coming of Christ, making that statement…it’s meaning,being simply that he will never experience death.

If you use this type of exegesis for John, that is, John will be changed from being a mortal to being an immortal “without going through the process of dying”, then, in my opinion, the same should be implied for Mary as well; that is, Mary, at the birth of Jesus becomes a mother while still remaining a virgin. If the implication of John is that he will never experience death, then, what is wrong in assuming the scriptures **suggesting ** the same for Mary; therefore implying that she will always remain a virgin?

It’s more like trying to prove that Jesus is divine by showing (proving)that the early christians, the followers of the apostles, understood the gosple in the such a way. You know as well as I do, that some christians, in using scriptures only, denie the divinity of Christ through their own private interpretations…

.

Where was Lazarous, after he died? The scriptures speaks of Abraham’s bosom… was he in heaven, or was he in hell? What proof do we have?

Would this include James? We know that Jesus chose twelve apostles to be the foundation of His church .After Judas died, the apostles replaced him with a disciple **who had to have been a follower of Jesus from the beginning. **.
St Paul became an apostle after receiving a revelation of the risen Christ, and through his work, became a powerful apostle.However, he identifies the pillars of the church as being three apostles, he, being excluded; although James, the Lord’s brother being one of the pillars. If James was an unbeliever, what happened in order for him to have experienced such a powerful change, in order for him to become one of the three pillars of the church, being above most of the apostles? The scripture is totaly silent on any type of conversion experienced by James, althpough we know a great deal about the conversion of Saul.
Having first century documents ( gosple of the Hebrews) identifying James as being one of the twelve clearly solves the problem, doesn’t it? How could James be one of the three pillars of the church, above most of the apostles, if, in order to replace Judas, a disciple who had followed Jesus from the beginning of His minitry, had to be chosen? Simply, that, James was already one of the twelve.

Andre
 
[hvg3akaek;2215325]😛 that is no evidence! We use the terms today, we have simply kept the meaning of the early church, and not the meaning the Roman Catholics have made it.

catholic = universal

There is only one “universal” church, only one “catholic” group of followers of Christ. That group stretches across the world, goes back in history and forward in time, and comes under many different headings.
And I was hoping you wanted to objectively look at the evidence but you are reinventing the word “Catholic” and placing a 21st century label on it. Even Protestant theologians readily admit that “Catholic” means the current “Roman Catholic church” and so do secular sources…
"Catholic - derived, through Latin, from the Greek adjective καθολικός, meaning “general”, “universal” (cf. [)Henry George Liddell, Robert Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon (http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=#51864) -
“Early Church historian J. N. D. Kelly, a Protestant, writes: “As regards ‘Catholic,’ its original meaning was ‘universal’ or ‘general.’ . . . in the latter half of the second century at latest, we find it conveying the suggestion that the Catholic is the true Church as distinct from heretical congregations (cf., e.g., Muratorian Canon). . . . What these early Fathers were envisaging was almost always the empirical, visible society; they had little or no inkling of the distinction which was later to become important between a visible and an invisible Church” (Early Christian Doctrines, 190–1).”
But it is not one organisation which has adopted the term, and uses it to try to state that all outside are not part of God’s family.

You mean like Roman Catholicism has done? Not at all 😉
Why don’t you and I compare the early church (the next generation of disciples of the Apostles) post first century and prereformation with your Protestant beliefs and my Roman Catholic beliefs and see who “doctrines” agree with whom.
I know of Roman Catholics that teach that Mary was not a perpetual virgin. The general consensus on this forum would be that they disagree with this 😉
Helvidius thought that also in the fourth century but Jerome already knew the truth and corrected his heterodoxy. Even Protestant theologians hail Jerome as one of histories greatest scholars. Here is a link where Jerome corrects Helvidius.
cin.org/users/james/files/helvidiu.htm
I do believe I gave a list before…somewhere.
Perhaps you are thinking of the “rites” within the Catholic church? Some areas have differing rites but they all consent to the authority and doctrines of the Magisterium and Bishop of Rome (Pope).
Possibly that we have all sinned, that is pretty essential.
That God is the only God, the creator of all.
That without God, we are destined for hell.
That God loved us so much that he gave His only son to die, so that we may be saved.
That Jesus is God.
That we must accept Jesus and follow Him.

Thats a start. Any you wish to add?
Baptism? How about the Church of Christ, they and some Lutherans and Anglicans assert the need for Baptism and some reformed as well, that’s why all but the Church of Christ practice padeo baptism.
 
Nope, no dice.

First, it does not say that they had interpreted the scripture incorrectly, only that they were told (from v3) “This Jesus I am proclaiming to you is the Christ”, and checked their scriptures, and agreed.

Second, they only had the OT, so ‘sola scripture’ has nothing to do with them. ‘sola scripture’ is not just about the OT, but the NT too.

And thirdly, this discussion really should be over here. 🙂
Ah, I see. So sola scriptura is not found in the OT? Great I agree, and it is NOT found in the NT nor post Apostles, not until Martin Luther created it in the sixteenth century. Luther I might add affirmed Mary’s perpetual virginity as did Calvin.
 
Nope, no dice.

First, it does not say that they had interpreted the scripture incorrectly, only that they were told (from v3) “This Jesus I am proclaiming to you is the Christ”, and checked their scriptures, and agreed.

Second, they only had the OT, so ‘sola scripture’ has nothing to do with them. ‘sola scripture’ is not just about the OT, but the NT too.

And thirdly, this discussion really should be over here. 🙂
If they just read the OT and knew Jesus was the true Messiah then why would they need Paul to show them He was?
They should have just welcomed Paul and Paul wouldn’t have had to show them the true Jesus.
Sola scriptura is not found in the OT nor the NT nor post Apostolic period until Martin Luther created it. Luther and Calvin also believed in Mary’s perpetual virginity, I might add.
 
Hi Randy! I look forward to hearing your response to my thoughts on your explanations 🙂

Thanks 🙂 After all, God’s Word is infallible, and thus any further ‘revelation’ would have to agree with it exactly.
Actually, since the Church wrote the Bible, one would expect that Tradition and Scripture go hand in hand. Not everything was written down as the Apostle John himself makes a point of telling us.
I can understand that, and will read through your responses. Naturally, I can only view them as a ‘novelty’ (can I say that? Is it OK to call other people’s beliefs “novelties”, but not “whacky”? personally, i would have thought the two terms were much closer together 😉 )
Actually, the Church was called “Catholic” in Irenaeus’ “Letter to the Smyrnaeans” in 110 A.D. Since he was a disciple of Peter and John, you’d think he would have some familiarity with this issue. Thus, it can be clearly deomonstrated that the Catholic Church is one and the same with the Church founded by Jesus Christ upon Peter the Rock. (cf. Matthew 16:18) Consequently, you cannot simply dismiss the quotes of the Early Church Fathers since they were all members of the one Church which was first called “the Way” then “Christian” and finally “Catholic”.

Since the one Church has held the idea that Mary was ever-virgin, the only novelty is held by those who 1500+ years later deny it.
So, as to these big quotes, I have a few questions for you (as I do not know much about these sources 🙂 )
Perhaps it might be best to do a bit of research first, then ask your questions?
The Protoevangelium of James - is this also called the “Gospel of James”? My first question is, if it was an authoritative document, why is it not in the NT canon?

From my limited knowledge of the book, your date of writing also looks a little young. Sure, maybe only by 30 or so years (150+ AD). It does not sound like it was part of the early church’s documents.
Do you have any document even remotely close to that age which states unequivocally that Jesus had uterine brothers and sisters? Remember, Aramaic had no word for “cousins”, so I will not accept the scriptures themselves as your proof. This issue is explained to my satisfaction (obviously, I am not alone given the course of Church history).
Something else interesting is shown here, however. The idea of perpetual virginity, says Origen was because of the “wish to preserve the honor of Mary”. That is, the belief is that sex with her husband could somehow dishonour her. How could this be? Is it not more of a dishonour to not follow God, who said “the two will become one flesh” (eg Matthew 19:5)?

Or ignore God’s instructions, through Paul in 1 Corinthians 7:5 - “Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.”
There are many issues here: 1) Mary’s vow of virginity and Joseph’s agreement to marry her as a protector - not as a normal husband, 2) the fact that in becoming pregnant through another (in this case the Holy Spirit), Joseph could not have her as his wife in the normal sense according to Jewish law; 3) Joseph is thought to have been an older widower - hence his qualification and willingness to take Mary into his home as her “husband” though he would not have sex with her due to her vow; and 4) the action of grace in his life given to him by God who chose him to be the father on Earth of His Son, Jesus. Obviously, there are many men and women who take vows of celibacy in response to God’s call. Joseph is not unusual in this…Paul did the same.
Or was Joseph also sinless, in that he could withstand all temptation?
This is difficult for us men to understand today, but that’s because we don’t have “St.” in front of our names.
Clearly, God’s purpose in marriage is for sexual intercourse, and through that, for the people to become one. What is marriage without sex?
I’m going to suggest that you think long and hard about that question.
Hilary of Poitiers - From here, we get close to the start of Roman Catholicism, so using said arguments does become quite cyclic.
Wrong. As has been pointed out, the Church was called the Catholic Church probably within the lifetime of the last living Apostle, John. So, from here, your disagreement is without merit.
However, that a commentator on the Bible should reach the same incorrect conclusion does not make it any less incorrect. This discussion will not be won on votes 😉
My argument against sola scriptura exactly. But that is another thread.

(cont.)
 
Anyway, the rest seem to be following in this area. The fact that they have the same ideas as you does not make either view correct - any more than if I were to quote their opponents (for surely such works as “Against Helvidius: The Perpetual Virginity of Mary” had opponents 😉 ) it would be proof for me.
When we get as late as **Martin Luther **and friends, I cannot see the logic in claiming that he believed in it. He also believed in other things that Roman Catholics clearly do not - are all his beliefs correct?

He grew up in the Roman Catholic traditions, stepping out as much as he did was hard. So he didn’t shake everything off - it took time, generations. That is understandable. But trying to say “Luther believed it, so it must be true” simply does not work. Unless you are willing to say that he was infallible, and all his views were correct. 😉
Growing up in the Roman Catholic traditions" didn’t stop Luther from throwing out many other beliefs he had previously held. This would have been his big chance to put an end to the Marian nonsense once and for all…and he did not take it.

Curious that. :tiphat:
 
What is interesting to note is pg 999 of the schoffiled bible, which supports the catholic position. As well as the original reformers:

Martin Luther on Mary’s Perpetual Virginity

Christ, our Savior, was the real and natural fruit of Mary’s virginal womb . . . This was without the cooperation of a man, and she remained a virgin after that.

Christ . . . was the only Son of Mary, and the Virgin Mary bore no children besides Him . . . I am inclined to agree with those who declare that ‘brothers’ really mean ‘cousins’ here, for Holy Writ and the Jews always call cousins brothers.

A new lie about me is being circulated. I am supposed to have preached and written that Mary, the mother of God, was not a virgin either before or after the birth of Christ . . .

Scripture does not say or indicate that she later lost her virginity . . .

When Matthew [1:25] says that Joseph did not know Mary carnally until she had brought forth her son, it does not follow that he knew her subsequently; on the contrary, it means that he never did know her . . . This babble . . . is without justification . . . he has neither noticed nor paid any attention to either Scripture or the common idiom.

John Calvin on Mary’s Perpetual Virginity

Helvidius displayed excessive ignorance in concluding that Mary must have had many sons, because Christ’s ‘brothers’ are sometimes mentioned.

[On Matt 1:25:] The inference he [Helvidius] drew from it was, that Mary remained a virgin no longer than till her first birth, and that afterwards she had other children by her husband . . . No just and well-grounded inference can be drawn from these words . . . as to what took place after the birth of Christ. He is called ‘first-born’; but it is for the sole purpose of informing us that he was born of a virgin . . . What took place afterwards the historian does not inform us . . . No man will obstinately keep up the argument, except from an extreme fondness for disputation.

Under the word ‘brethren’ the Hebrews include all cousins and other relations, whatever may be the degree of affinity.

Huldreich Zwingli

He turns, in September 1522, to a lyrical defense of the perpetual virginity of the mother of Christ . . . To deny that Mary remained ‘inviolata’ before, during and after the birth of her Son, was to doubt the omnipotence of God . . . and it was right and profitable to repeat the angelic greeting - not prayer - ‘Hail Mary’ . . . God esteemed Mary above all creatures, including the saints and angels - it was her purity, innocence and invincible faith that mankind must follow. Prayer, however, must be . . . to God alone . . .
‘Fidei expositio,’ the last pamphlet from his pen . . . There is a special insistence upon the perpetual virginity of Mary.
{G. R. Potter, Zwingli, London: Cambridge Univ. Press, 1976, pp.88-9,395 / The Perpetual Virginity of Mary . . ., Sep. 17, 1522}

Zwingli had printed in 1524 a sermon on ‘Mary, ever virgin, mother of God.’

I have never thought, still less taught, or declared publicly, anything concerning the subject of the ever Virgin Mary, Mother of our salvation, which could be considered dishonourable, impious, unworthy or evil . . . I believe with all my heart according to the word of holy gospel that this pure virgin bore for us the Son of God and that she remained, in the birth and after it, a pure and unsullied virgin, for eternity.

…cont…
 
Heinrich Bullinger

Bullinger (d. 1575) . . . defends Mary’s perpetual virginity . . . and inveighs against the false Christians who defraud her of her rightful praise: ‘In Mary everything is extraordinary and all the more glorious as it has sprung from pure faith and burning love of God.’ She is ‘the most unique and the noblest member’ of the Christian community . . .

‘The Virgin Mary . . . completely sanctified by the grace and blood of her only Son and abundantly endowed by the gift of the Holy Spirit and preferred to all . . . now lives happily with Christ in heaven and is called and remains ever-Virgin and Mother of God.’

John Wesley (Founder of Methodism)

The Blessed Virgin Mary, who, as well after as when she brought him forth, continued a pure and unspotted virgin.

John Wesley takes us up to as late as 1791 where protestantism believed in the perpetual virginity of Mary. The thoroughly modernist revision of Christian belief, which began with the restoration movement of the Mormons, Jehovah Witnesses, Evangelicalism, and Seventh Day Adventists was nowhere found nor supported in christianity protestant or catholic. The earliest would be Helvidius the heretic, (whom modern protestants seem to have adopted as their patron saint), to whom Jerome replied. So the first to question Mary’s perpetual virginity was a heretic in the 4th century. Even the reformers gave a sharp defense of Mary’s virginity.

Modernism, thoroughly made up and not a christian belief.

Peace and God Bless
Nicene
 
that is no evidence! We use the terms today, we have simply kept the meaning of the early church, and not the meaning the Roman Catholics have made it.

catholic = universal

There is only one “universal” church, only one “catholic” group of followers of Christ. That group stretches across the world, goes back in history and forward in time, and comes under many different headings.
This is a nice sentiment…but wrong.

Early Church Fathers on the “Catholic” Church


Ignatius of Antioch

“Wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there, just as wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” (Epistle to the Smyrneans 8:2. [110 A.D.]).

Augustine

"[T]he very name of Catholic . . . belongs to this Church alone . . . so much so that, although all heretics want to be called catholic,' when a stranger inquires where the Catholic Church meets, none of the heretics would dare to point out his own basilica or house" (*Against the Letter of Mani Called The Foundation’* 4:5 [397 A.D.]).

Everyone wants to claim that they are "catholic’ but the term is properly applied to the one Church that Jesus founded. That Church, and that Church alone is “one, holy, catholic and Apostolic.”

Hope this helps. :tiphat:
 
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