OK, a few problems here.
Once Jesus returns, thats the ‘end of everything’, right? There is no longer earth and heaven, there is no longer any death, there is just God’s new creation, his people living with him, and those outside outside.
So, the idea of being able to “remain until [Jesus’] return” does not mean live forever, but live forever in this creation. That is, not be able to die. The idea is that he cannot die “now”, “here”, because of Jesus’ (misread) claim, he cannot die “after” because there will be no more death.
That is, the “until” is stating that the condition (not die) runs for a period of time (now => Jesus’ return), from which the normal situation would apply (heaven - no death).
If the focus of the issue is death, then, for John to be able to remain and not experience death means that a change within his earthly nature is needed for this to occur. So, if the prophecy did indeed occur (let’s assume that it did), we could ask when was John transformed from being a mortal person, to being immortal? At the coming of Christ?.. or sometime during his earthly life? I would think that the transformation happened sometimes during his earthly life ( for how could he have survived for two thousand years?). Therefore, for John, the event of the coming of Christ, where the dead in Christ will be risen, does not concern him personally, since he is already transformed, wouldn’t you think? Therefore, since for John, the coming of Christ is not his time of change from being a mortal to becoming immortal, then the statement that he would not die “until the coming of Christ” does not imply that he will experience such a change at the coming of Christ, making that statement…it’s meaning,being simply that he will never experience death.
Likewise, the “until” in Matthew stating that the condition (no sex) runs for a period of time (start of marriage => Jesus’ birth), from which the normal situation would apply (in marriage - sex).
That is good exegesis. Not proof, just heavily suggesting.
If you use this type of exegesis for John, that is, John will be changed from being a mortal to being an immortal
“without going through the process of dying”, then, in my opinion, the same should be implied for Mary as well; that is, Mary, at the birth of Jesus becomes a mother while still remaining a virgin. If the implication of John is that he will never experience death, then, what is wrong in assuming the scriptures **suggesting ** the same for Mary; therefore implying that she will always remain a virgin?
The problem is, it is like trying to prove that Jesus wasn’t the Christ, using the Koran.
It’s more like trying to prove that Jesus is divine by showing (proving)that the early christians, the followers of the apostles, understood the gosple in the such a way. You know as well as I do, that some christians, in using scriptures only, denie the divinity of Christ through their own private interpretations…
As to “Abraham’s bosom”… I am hesitant to ask, but what else could it mean but his chest? What else was it but a sign of comfort/friendship/care?
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Where was Lazarous, after he died? The scriptures speaks of Abraham’s bosom… was he in heaven, or was he in hell? What proof do we have?
The problem here is that as of John 7, Jesus’ brothers did not believe. Thus, those referred to as 'brothers of Jesus" at this stage were not part of the disciples - the 12, or others. Thus, they were different people.
Would this include James? We know that Jesus chose twelve apostles to be the foundation of His church .After Judas died, the apostles replaced him with a disciple **who had to have been a follower of Jesus from the beginning. **.
St Paul became an apostle after receiving a revelation of the risen Christ, and through his work, became a powerful apostle.However, he identifies the pillars of the church as being three apostles, he, being excluded; although James, the Lord’s brother being one of the pillars. If James was an unbeliever, what happened in order for him to have experienced such a powerful change, in order for him to become one of the three pillars of the church, being above most of the apostles? The scripture is totaly silent on any type of conversion experienced by James, althpough we know a great deal about the conversion of Saul.
Having first century documents ( gosple of the Hebrews) identifying James as being one of the twelve clearly solves the problem, doesn’t it? How could James be one of the three pillars of the church, above most of the apostles, if, in order to replace Judas, a disciple who had followed Jesus from the beginning of His minitry, had to be chosen? Simply, that, James was already one of the twelve.
Andre