On another thread (as well as ol threads from long ago), it was mentioned that when Jesus was born, Mary’s womb was “opened.”
I know that some people debate this and say Jesus was born in a miraculous way (through Mary’s tummy?)
I also know Mary is ever Virgin. So what, if anything, does the Church teach on this?
There are 2 questions here that I want to address:
1 Whether or not her hymen broke?
2 Whether or not her cervix dilated?
Before we get to those questions, let’s ask a preliminary one please?
Why do we even care? Why even ask those question? The answer is: because in the minds of some early Fathers, the definition of “virginity” was (in part) determined by those 2 questions. If either was answered in the affirmative, then a woman was not a virgin.
Obviously they were not the only questions. If a woman was already a mother, such questions were unnecessary.
These questions were seen as some in the ancient world to be a method (a provable one at least in their minds) of determining the virginity of a woman. Anyone can lie about having or not having a past experience. So, some people saw these questions as a way of proving or disproving a woman’s virginity.
I ANSWER THAT: it is not a necessary Christian doctrine to believe that the definition of virginity depends absolutely on either of those 2 questions. In other words, to put it more directly, no ons is
required as a matter of faith to believe that if a woman’s cervix ever opened she ceases to be a virgin. No one is required as a matter of faith to believe that if a woman’s hymen breaks, she ceases to be a virgin.
I submit (as a theologian, not just someone taking a best guess) that the essential element of “virginity” is that the woman had no relations with a man. Not just no relations that resulted in a pregnancy. Not just no relations in which the act was completed. No sexual relations with a man. Period.
We are required to believe in the perpetual virginity of Mary. Of course. No one here doubts this.
I disagree with the assertion that
anyone must believe as a matter of faith that if a woman’s cervix has ever dilated that necessarily means that she is not a virgin. Our faith does not define such matters.
Our faith does not require us to hold such a definition de fide.
I do agree with the assertion that we must believe that our Blessed Mother never had relations with a man; that she remained a virgin before, during, and after the birth of Christ, indeed forever since she is now in heaven. In other words, it is indeed essential to the definition of the word virgin to say that a woman never had relations with a man. We cannot say that being a “young woman” or being “not married” is a sufficient definition of virginity. Such definitions do not go far enough–and there’s nothing new about them, such attempts to re-define virginity have been around for centuries.