So this is the kind of wierd thoughts you get when you are on night shift and don’t get off until 3am…someone answer this please.
A marriage is not considered valid by the Catholic Church unless consummated, right?
Mary was ever virgin, right?
Incorrect.
“Catholic theology teaches that a validly-contracted marriage is accompanied by divine ratification, creating a virtually indissoluble union until the couple consummate, after which the marriage is completely indissoluble. An unconsummated marriage can be dissolved by the Pope, as Vicar of Christ. Once the marriage is consummated, only a separation is possible; the marriage bond cannot be dissolved.”
It should be noted that when the annuncation took place, Mary was Joseph’s betrothed wife. This means that they were married. Jewish customs at that time had two ceremonies. Man and wife would exchange matrimonial consent approx a year prior to moving in together and consumating their marriage. This is why when Joseph found out Mary was pregnant, he considered divorcing her in secret. If they were not married, he wouldn’t have considered divorced. And as we see from Catholic theology, while it is difficult to dissolve a non-consumated marriage, it is possible.
"Historically betrothal in Catholicism was a formal contract considered as binding as marriage, and a divorce was necessary to terminate a betrothal.[7] Betrothed couples were regarded legally as husband and wife - even before their wedding and physical union. The concept of an official engagement period in Western European culture may have begun in 1215 at the Fourth Lateran Council, headed by Pope Innocent III, which decreed that “marriages are to be … announced publicly in the churches by the priests during a suitable and fixed time, so that if legitimate impediments exist, they may be made known.”[8][9] Such a formal church announcement of the intent to marry is known as banns. "
So our Church basically changed the traditions and restricted us from exchanging matrimonial consent. This artificially created the engagement period.
It gets confusing because there also eventually existed a trend for parents to sign contracts with each other to “betroth” their young children to each other. These obviously would not involve matrimonial consent, so this is likely the reason we associate betrothal with engagement.
So the reality is that Mary and Joseph were a married couple when Mary conceived Jesus. Once she moved in with Jesus, while they had conjugal rights, they did not practice them. The most ancient traditions regarding the nature of Mary and Joseph’s portrays Joseph as an older widow who married Mary in order to more of take custody of her as society did not provide opportunities (aside from prostitution) for a woman to economically support themselves. That is why there is such an emphasis from Christ to take care of the widow. If I widow had no sons, she was doomed to a life of immense poverty and may resort to prostitution to keep herself alive.
As such, Mary’s question over how she could possibly become pregnant when she has not been with a man, points more to her perpetual virginity because as she was betrothed to Joseph, without such a commitment, she should have expected to conceive after the betrothal period of a year was completed. After all, when Abraham was told several times that he’d conceive a son through Sarah, it was many years before she actually conceived. In fact, it was so long that they fell into such despair that Sarah offered her servant Hagar to sleep with her husband so that Hagar’s son would be considered theirs. You then still have time for Hagar to conceive, for gestation, birth and it does seem that it was still years after that before Sarah conceived. If Mary knew it had taken Sarah years, why would Mary wonder how it’d be possible for her to conceive?