Part of the readings for the Assumption of Mary on August 15, 2012 were as follows…
Revelation 12:1-2…
A great sign appeared in the sky, a woman clothed with the sun,
with the moon under her feet,
and on her head a crown of twelve stars.
She was with child and wailed aloud in pain as she labored to give birth…
In Genesis, females for original sin were given the curse of pains during labor…
Genesis 3:16; To the woman he said:I will intensify your toil in childbearing;in pain* you shall bring forth children.Yet your urge shall be for your husband,and he shall rule over you.
If Mary did not have Original Sin, and according to Church teaching she did not…how could the verses in Revelation 12 be referring to Mary as having ‘wailed aloud in pain’…
?