T
ToeInTheWater
Guest
I think the idea that “women would give birth without pain” if not for the Fall is actually a misconception. Most Bible versions do not state that God told Eve he would give her pains in childbirth, but that he would “increase” or “greatly increase” her pain.This gets me thinking. How exactly, if the Fall hadn’t happened, would women give birth without pain? Different anatomy? Their body would produce painkillers? Something miraculous? Babies were born smaller?
I fail to see how this could conceivably not be painful.
I guess no one here reads the articles on the main site, but Tim Staples actually recently addressed this topic:
Although his answer is “no she didn’t” even his article quotes the relevant Bible verse:
Was Mary Free From Labor Pains?
But for our purpose, we want to focus on Genesis 3:16 and one particular effect of original sin:
Scripture teaches that as a result of original sin, God would “greatly multiply” the pains of labor not only for Eve but for all women. Many Fathers of the Church and theologians down through the centuries deemed it fitting that Mary alone would be exempt from such pains as a sign of her unique holiness. Thus, Mary’s freedom from the pains of labor is one of many reasons for belief in her Immaculate Conception.To the woman [the Lord God] said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children.”
Now to me since the actual Bible passage never states “God said, I will now give you pain in childbearing, if not for your sin you would have not had any pain at all” I really don’t think it follows that even if Mary was sinless, that she therefore must have had no labor pain at all. I don’t see any basis for the idea that she didn’t even go through labor. And there are some Biblical basis such as the Revelation quote about a woman “groaning in pain, as she was giving birth” that argue against the idea; since most Catholics DO accept this “woman” is Mary, or at least that the woman represents Mary among other things.
I also think Staples should have worded this paragraph a little more clearly. It’s also somewhat begging the question to state that Mary’s freedom from pain is “one of many reasons for belief in her Immaculate Conception” when that is the exact question being discussed.