Mary and us receiving the Eucharist

[Corpus_Cristi]

I was just listening to the encore of EWTN Open Line with John Martinoni and a caller asked a question about Mary’s immaculate conception and us receiving the Eucharist. I had only thought about this once before, but I decided to leave it alone, since the church teaches the truth, but I remembered that it’s important to question all you believe. The caller asked if Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin to bear Jesus, then why do we receive the body, blood, soul, and divinity of the resurrected lord, which is by all means even more than Mary received, not to deny Christ’s divinity, but to say that Mary only brought Jesus into the world, we eat his flesh and drink his blood to become him. I know that we too are clean of the stain of original sin also, since if we weren’t, we wouldn’t be receiving communion, since you have to be baptized. I was just bothered by it because it made me think. I know that the doctrines of the immaculate conception and the true prescence of Christ in the Eucharist are true, and I believe both of them, but this thing came up and it’s actually a very good question. What if a protestant brother or sister confronts us with the same thing and we don’t know how to answer?

 

[Buckeyejoe]

It’s late, I’m not sure what you’re getting at. Mary was conceived without original sin. She was the “full of Grace”

She brouth forth Jesus Christ, body, blood, soul, divinity. Everything!.

Hypostatic Union means Jesus Christ the Man and the God are inseperable. So she gave birth to both the Human nature and the Divine nature. Jesus has two natures but is one Person. The 2nd Person of the Holy Trinity. The Holy Trinity is 3 Persons, Father, Son, Holy Spirit, but One God.

When we receive the Eucharist we receive Jesus Himself. That is why we say Body, Blood, Soul, Divinity, to make it clear that we are receiving the total Jesus.

Mary was the channel by which the total Jesus was able to come into the world.

I hope this helps, I’m not sure if this answered your question.

Thanks.

 

[Corpus_Cristi]

Thank you for your reply, yet that’s not what I was asking. I was asking if someone knew why it was that we receive the Eucharist, yet we’re not “full of grace” as Mary was, and as we claim that she “had to be” to bear Jesus Christ in her womb. Even though we aren’t in a state of mortal sin when we do, and we pray the Our Father (which St. Augustine said removes all venial sin) and we wouldn’t be committing any sin between the time we pray it and the time we receive communion. I’m just asking if the church considers us protected in grace when we receive communion since we’ve done these things. I would’ve put it in the the “Ask An Apologist” forum, but I wanted a quick answer.

 

[hawkeye]

Corpus Cristi:

I was just listening to the encore of EWTN Open Line with John Martinoni and a caller asked a question about Mary’s immaculate conception and us receiving the Eucharist. I had only thought about this once before, but I decided to leave it alone, since the church teaches the truth, but I remembered that it’s important to question all you believe. The caller asked if Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin to bear Jesus, then why do we receive the body, blood, soul, and divinity of the resurrected lord, which is by all means even more than Mary received, not to deny Christ’s divinity, but to say that Mary only brought Jesus into the world, we eat his flesh and drink his blood to become him. I know that we too are clean of the stain of original sin also, since if we weren’t, we wouldn’t be receiving communion, since you have to be baptized. I was just bothered by it because it made me think. I know that the doctrines of the immaculate conception and the true prescence of Christ in the Eucharist are true, and I believe both of them, but this thing came up and it’s actually a very good question. What if a protestant brother or sister confronts us with the same thing and we don’t know how to answer?

So how do we know that Mary didn’t receive the Eucharist, the Apostles must have broken bread many times for a rememberance of Jesus, and I’m sure Mary was with them.

 

[hawkeye]

Corpus Cristi:

Thank you for your reply, yet that’s not what I was asking. I was asking if someone knew why it was that we receive the Eucharist, yet we’re not “full of grace” as Mary was, and as we claim that she “had to be” to bear Jesus Christ in her womb. Even though we aren’t in a state of mortal sin when we do, and we pray the Our Father (which St. Augustine said removes all venial sin) and we wouldn’t be committing any sin between the time we pray it and the time we receive communion. I’m just asking if the church considers us protected in grace when we receive communion since we’ve done these things. I would’ve put it in the the “Ask An Apologist” forum, but I wanted a quick answer.

We are supposed to be in a state if grace to receive communion, how do we get in this state of grace ? Confession, If we knowlingly receive with the knowledge that we have not excamined our conscience, then that is sacriligious receiving.
I’m sure Mary received Jesus as well in the breaking of the bread, the Apostles must have broke bread many times after Jesus departed this world.

 

[MichaelTDoyle]

Corpus Cristi:

I was just listening to the encore of EWTN Open Line with John Martinoni and a caller asked a question about Mary’s immaculate conception and us receiving the Eucharist. I had only thought about this once before, but I decided to leave it alone, since the church teaches the truth, but I remembered that it’s important to question all you believe. The caller asked if Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin to bear Jesus, then why do we receive the body, blood, soul, and divinity of the resurrected lord, which is by all means even more than Mary received, not to deny Christ’s divinity, but to say that Mary only brought Jesus into the world, we eat his flesh and drink his blood to become him. I know that we too are clean of the stain of original sin also, since if we weren’t, we wouldn’t be receiving communion, since you have to be baptized. I was just bothered by it because it made me think. I know that the doctrines of the immaculate conception and the true prescence of Christ in the Eucharist are true, and I believe both of them, but this thing came up and it’s actually a very good question. What if a protestant brother or sister confronts us with the same thing and we don’t know how to answer?

Giving birth to Jesus and receiving communion are two different actions. Similar in someways but I would not call them identical.

The angel stated Mary, full of grace. An angel’s word should be sufficient.