K
knightbvm
Guest
I dont understand what you mean when you say the “the doctrine that is being advocated today?” what is the difference in the doctrine (the quotes i quoted from the Fathers) and that which you say “is being advocated today?”—I dont find anything in the recent POpes teaching(Benedict XV Leo XIII, John Paul II) that is any different from what the fathers taught— pleae explainI have gone back and read your posts, and I don’t think that you have provided any evidence that the ECF held a belief anything like the Co-Redemtrix belief that is being advocated today. The “neck” analogy is from Pius X in the 20th Century. Your other citations, even if it is assumed they support this doctrine, are also from the 19th and 20th centuries.
The Saint Irenaenus quote is the only ECF quote, but it refers to the general idea that salvation came through Mary in that Mary bore Christ, not that Mary has a post-resurrection role in grace or salvation.
There are a number of things that trouble me here, but one of them is the relationship between this doctrine and 1 John. We know that Mary lived with John between the Passion and her death. It is likely that John was closer to her than any other Apostle. In 1 John, John gives us a clear statement of the faith, and a clear, of the path to salvation, and of the relationship between Christ, the Holy Spirt, and the faithful. Mary is not mentioned anywhere. John tells us that the Spirit dwells within us, and that the Spirit brings the love of God to perfection within us. Why did John not understand Mary’s role?
I think that the intention is to further glorify and revere Mary, and I have no problem with giving Mary her due. But this doctrine appears to also put distance between us and God. There is no distance between us and God. God dwells within us. He speaks directly to us. Why put Mary between God and man? There is no need for a ‘conduit’ for the flow of Grace from God to man. What is the basis for thinking such a thing would be required?