I don’t agree. The originators of the Gospels knew very well how to distinguish between brothers, sisters and other kin. They did so in many other parts of Scripture.
I respectfully say that this is simply not true. A very interesting and worthwhile point is that there were not words in ancient Hebrew or Aramaic for close family relationships such as uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin. The words used to describe all these relationships, in the absence of those terms, were brother and sister. A Scriptural example of this can be found in Genesis:
Gen 14:14 - “Which when Abram had heard, to wit, that his* brother Lot *was taken…”
Lot is described as Abram’s brother here. Contrast with Gen 11:27:
Gen 11:27 - “And these are the generations of Thare: Thare begot Abram, Nachor, and Aran. And Aran begot Lot.”
The geneology clearly shows that Lot is Abram’s nephew, as we would call that relationship today. The word “nephew” didn’t exist back then, so the writer used the word “brother” to describe this relationship.
Skip ahead to the new testament in Mark:
Mar 6:3 - “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joseph, and Jude, and Simon? are not also his sisters here with us?”
In light of that language restriction just pointed out, this use of the words “brother” and “sister” doesn’t definitively prove that Mary gave birth to any other children to literally and bilogically give Jesus brothers and sisters. In fact, it seems reaonable that Mary the mother of James and Joseph is not the same Mary as Mary the mother of Jesus when the following is considered:
Mark 15:40 - “And there were also women looking
on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalen, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joseph…”
We know that these women are not Jesus’ mother because Scripture is very clear about Mary the mother of Jesus being right at the foot of the cross:
John 19:25-27 - “Now there **stood by the cross **of Jesus, his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalen. When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son. After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own.”
In addition, consider that Jewish custom at the time was that care of the mother after the father’s death would go to the sons; first the oldest, and then the others. I believe St. Joseph had passed on by this time. So, if you believe that Jesus had biological brothers and sisters, you also believe that one of His last actions before He died was to severely offend His surviving brothers by entrusting care of their mother to St. John. It would have been a huge slap in the face to them for this happen. After that tremendous display of love and sacrifice He showed for all humanity on the cross, do you really think that he would choose to offend His surviving family members? It doesn’t make sense if Mary the mother of Jesus had any other children.
The likely explanation is that the James and Joseph described in the verses cited were born of another Mary aside from Jesus’ mother and were His cousins. As shown above, Scripture does not clearly prove that Mary *did not *remain a perpetual virgin when interpreted in context. It also does not prove that Mary
did remain a perpetual virgin, but then again, we agree that doctrine is not counter to Scripture simply because it is absent from Scripture (remember, we agree that there can be truth outside of Scripture).
And so I say again, just as countless others have here, nothing in the Catholic faith (including Marian beliefs) is counter to Scripture. You have to be open to the fact that your interpretation of Scripture may be flawed, just as I do (unless I’m in agreement with an infallible interpretation, that is

) If I were you, I’d stop attacking Mary and concentrate on apostolic succession - that’s what it really comes down to, no matter what side you’re on.