L
Leslie_Polley
Guest
Sure it shows how you think it would play out in court of law…I am more interested in how it plays out with God…One day we will all know for sure that the Word of God reigns.Okay…this will be my last attempt to explain this to you…we’re waaaay past the point of diminishing returns.
The word “until” (Gr. heos hou) can mean exactly what you say it means; it implies a cessation of past action. We can agree on this, yes? Call this interpretation, “A”.
The word “until” can also be used in a manner that does NOT imply a cessation of past action. Numerous examples from scripture were given. We should be able to agree on this, also. Call this interpretation, “B”.
And not one of your scriptures proved your point, not one.
Now, if the word “until” can be used in a manner that does not REQUIRE cessation of past action, then you cannot assert that Matthew 1:25 PROVES your position because an equally plausible explanation exists.
Sorry it means what it means…sometimes a cigar is just a cigar, as Sigmund Freud once said…
This is the position that you are in. You cannot claim “A” is the ONLY possible interpretation because both “A” and “B” are possible. To use an analogy, in a court of law you could not convict someone of a crime if reasonable doubt exists. Your argument againt the Perpetual Virginity of Mary based on Matthew 1:25 is not beyond reasonable doubt, and the article that I provided on heos hou explains this clearly.
Additionally, in a court of law, I would bring in additional evidence such as the constant teaching of the Catholic Church, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, the beliefs of the Protestant Reformers and modern Protestants…well, you get the idea.
You bging in anything you chose to bring in…There is not ONE word in scripture that proves anything else…the other are seperate declarations by men, and are not Biblical
The preponderance of evidence is in my favor.
I don’t think so and neither does the BIBLE
Hope this helps. :tiphat: