Adam and eve sinned and their sin was passed to us which was origninal sin so through them we have all sinned, but Christ.
You have a seriously deficient understanding of Original Sin, here is something to help you understand:
How did the sin of Adam become the sin of all his descendants? The whole human race is in Adam “as one body of one man”.[sup]293[/sup] By this “unity of the human race” all men are implicated in Adam’s sin, as all are implicated in Christ’s justice. Still, the transmission of original sin is a mystery that we cannot fully understand. But we do know by Revelation that Adam had received original holiness and justice not for himself alone, but for all human nature. By yielding to the tempter, Adam and Eve committed a
personal sin, but this sin affected the
human nature that they would then transmit
in a fallen state.[sup]294[/sup] It is a sin which will be transmitted by propagation to all mankind, that is, by the transmission of a human nature deprived of original holiness and justice.
And that is why original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.
405 Although it is proper to each individual,[sup]295[/sup] original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.
. . .
[sup]
293[/sup] St. Thomas Aquinas,
De Malo 4,1.
[sup]
294[/sup] Cf. Council of Trent: DS 1511-1512
[sup]
295[/sup] Cf. Council of Trent: DS 1513.The above is the always held, orthodox, and
true understanding of Original Sin.
Nowere dies it say that Mary was sinnless, and that she never commited a sin.
This is a non argument, there is nothing in the Bible that says she DID sin. I don’t see why this matters to you anyway. Nowhere in the Bible does it say that we are saved by faith alone, or that the Bible is the only source of Christian truth and the only rule of faith, yet you believe those are true. PLUS, there is biblical evidence that says we are not saved by faith alone, and also that the Bible is not the only source of Christian truth, etc., etc. Since these are not in Bible (plus they were not believed by the early Church, where as the the Immaculate Conception [of Mary, not Jesus] was), why do you believe they are true?
I guess that is what us former C and Prostestants think…
And you are wrong.
She is not a perfect person or you are putting on the same level as Christ, and that is Blasphemy…
If by “perfect” you mean “sinless,” then yes, Mary was and is a perfect person. Now, if being without sin means you are on the same level as Christ, you would have to say that Adam and Eve were gods . . . so, yeah, being sinless is not limited to God; all people are sinless in heaven.
He was the sinnless sacrifice…Mary was not…
No Catholic has ever, nor will ever, claim that Mary was the “sinnless [sic] sacrifice,” it is absurd that you would say Catholics believe this; it is simply further evidence that you really do not know the Catholic faith. Then again, you really don’t care.
Mary WAS NOT PERFECT and she did sin or God would have made sure that it was clear in His word,
It is
unclear to
you, it is
clear to us. This is yet another problem with Protestantism, Protestants seem to think that their perspective is the only perspective.
not in the extras that the CC somes up with,
Name one.
and this was not done. It was made VERy clear about Christ Jesus though.
Yes, it was made clear about Christ, and it was made clear about Mary too; we have different perspectives. What matters is which one holds up to scrutiny. Why does the dogma of the Immaculate Conception bother you so much?
As much you want her to be perfect she was not…ONLY CHRIST.
Prove it, show me one verse that says, “Christ Jesus alone is without sin.”
thats why was the blood sacrifice that set us all free uncluding Mary.
Christ’s sacrifice was not efficacious simply because He is sinless, it is because He is God. An infinite offense committed by a finite creature can only be atoned for by an infinite being, i.e. God, aka Jesus Christ.
You can talk until you are blue in the face and you can only say she was perfect by your writings…NOT Gods.
We’ve shown you how God’s and man’s writings prove that she is sinless plenty of times.
If you went completely by God’s words, and not you fallible interpretation of them, you would see that Mary lived a sinless life.
And as I said before…if she where perfect and never sinned SHE could have been the blood sacrifice…
This is false as I have shown you, Jesus’ sacrifice was not efficacious simply because He is sinless, it’s because He is God.
You ARE makiing her equal to God and you are WRONG.
If being sinless means you are God, then you would have to say there are at least three gods, our God and Adam and Eve. If you believe that souls are truly sinless when they get to heaven then you will have to believe that there are more gods than the ancient Greeks believed in . . .
