Mary as Intercessor: Scriptural Reference?

[Apryl]

On Sunday morning, discussing Mary as the intecessor for God, I made the claim that there was a scripture reference where Christ TELLS us to go to His mother.

And then, Poof! Just like that, I can’t remember where I saw it.

I do believe I saw it this summer. That would mean it was probably in a Sunday liturgy… or maybe on a Tuesday (we do Tuesday morning Mass at my church). It’s not very likely that it was any other sources.

When I found it, I didn’t make note of it because I took it for granted it was listed on the Catholic Apologetic’s Scriptural Cheat Sheet , and it wasn’t on there when I looked on Sunday morning.

Does this sound familiar to any one else? Where can I find it? Where did I see it this summer?

 

[japhy]

Mary tells the wine stewards at the wedding in Cana to do whatever her son tells them to do. (John 2)

Jesus gives His mother to the beloved disciple (and vice versa) from the Cross. (John 19)

 

[baltobetsy]

The wedding feast at Cana illustrates the influence Mary has with her Son. He told her that His time had not come, presumably refusing to do anything about the wine, and she basically overruled Him. Now don’t flip out - I don’t mean that literally. But He did make His response AFTER she intervened, whether or not He planned to do so all along.

Betsy

 

[NHInsider]

The Apostles tell us to pray for one another, but there isn’t any specific reference for Jesus telling people to go to His mother with their requests. There are Old Testament examples of approaching the Queen mother with requests for the King which are sometimes cited.

 

[styrgwillidar]

“…whether or not He planned to do so all along.”

Christ specifically states that it is not yet His time, then He goes ahead and performs the miracle. So, without Mary’s intercession He would not have performed the miracle.

Note also, just as we don’t know how God will answer our prayers, Mary does not tell Jesus what to do. She points out the situation to him for His assistance, then tells the waiters to do whatever Jesus says, with faith that He will respond to her request.

 

[PLeeD]

Christ specifically states that it is not yet His time, then He goes ahead and performs the miracle. So, without Mary’s intercession He would not have performed the miracle.

How does that wedding event serve as an example for us to ask her for intercession when nobody asked Mary to intercede with the wine?

 

[Apryl]

How does that wedding event serve as an example for us to ask her for intercession when nobody asked Mary to intercede with the wine?

Because the wedding people went to Mary, and made their needs known to her.

When she was aware of the need, she presented that to her Son and he answered the prayers that they had (beyond what they asked for)

 

[Apryl]

Mary tells the wine stewards at the wedding in Cana to do whatever her son tells them to do. (John 2)

Jesus gives His mother to the beloved disciple (and vice versa) from the Cross. (John 19)

I think the second one is more in line for what I was thinking of.

By gosh, I can NOT recall where I got that impression from. These are common references, and references that I have used many times, but for some reason, I felt like I had my eyes opened to some other passage that I had not paid much attention to before.

Thank you all for your feedback. Mebbe if I remember what I was talking about, I’ll remember to post the response here.

 

[PLeeD]

Because the wedding people went to Mary, and made their needs known to her.

Not so. At least, it’s not reported that way. None of the Bible translations I’ve seen say anything about Mary being asked to intercede.

When she was aware of the need, she presented that to her Son and he answered the prayers that they had (beyond what they asked for)

I agree with that. I can see why you would reference that passage as relevant to questions about praying for Mary’'s help.

Still, the events at the wedding are not directly analogous to Mary as Intercessor since no one actually asked her to intervene.

 

[inkaneer]

How does that wedding event serve as an example for us to ask her for intercession when nobody asked Mary to intercede with the wine?

Did they have to ask? I mean was it an absolute necessity that someone had to ask her or could she have noted it herself? We don’t know a lot about the background of this event. Maybe Mary was related to whoever was to provide the wine and interceeded with Jesus to save that person from embarassment. We don’t know. What we do know is that Mary inteceeded and Jesus responded to her intercession. Now this whole event is not just a nice little sidebar in the gospel. It has been included in the gospel by the writer because the writer was inspired by the Holy Spirit to do so. The question for us to answer is why.

Many poeple think the answer is because this was Jesus’ first miracle. but I don’t see that answer being at all adequate. I mean, so what if it is His first miracle. How would it affect the gospel if it was his second miracle and we don’t know about the first? Basically I have never found an answer from either protestant or Catholic sources that I was satisfied with. But I know there has to be a reason this event was included in the scriptures. So here is my idea on why I think it is included.

In Mt 20:21 we read where the mother of the Apostles James and John asks Jesus if He would command that in His kingdom her two sons sit on His right and left. Jesus responds in verses 22 and 23:

"“You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I am to drink?” They said to him, “We are able.” 23 He said to them, “You will drink my cup, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.” [Mt 20:22-23]

Notice He says, “… it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.” The word used is ‘prepared’. That word is past tense. In other words whoever it is who sits next to Jesus has already been decided. It is a done deal. In Mt 22:44 we learn who one of those individuals are:

“44 ‘The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, till I put thy enemies under thy feet’?” [Mt 22:24]

Jesus is quoting Psalm 110:1 Now the two Lords mentioned are God the Father and Jesus. If we look at verse 5 in that same psalm we see that Jesus is the one who sits at God the Father’s right hand. So that would mean that God the Father sits at Jesus’ left side. Okay that is easy enough so who sits at Jesus’ right? For that we need to go to another Psalm. And that is psalm 45. But first, let’s look at another Davidic king and that is Solomon.

Continued…

 

[inkaneer]

Continuing…

In 1 Kings 1:11 we read:

“Wherefore Nathan spake unto Bathsheba the mother of Solomon, saying, Hast thou not heard that Adonijah the son of Haggith doth reign, and David our lord knoweth it not?”

Notice Bathsheba is the mother of Solomon. Then in 1 LKings 2:19 we read:

“Bathsheba therefore went unto king Solomon, to speak unto him for Adonijah. And the king rose up to meet her, and bowed himself unto her, and sat down on his throne, and caused a seat to be set for the king’s mother; and she sat on his right hand.”

Bathsheba, the mother of Solomon sits at his right hand. Now look at the very next verse which is 1 Kings 2:20:

"Then she said, I desire one small petition of thee; I pray thee, say me not nay. And the king said unto her, Ask on, my mother: for I will not say thee nay.

In the Davidic line of Kings the queen was the mother of the King and sat at the right hand of the King. Jesus was of the lineage of David and is a Davidic king. His mother, the Blessed Virgin Mary sits at his right hand. For further proof of this let’s look at 1Kings 15where it speaks of Asa, king of Judah. Verse 9-11 tells us:

“9 And in the twentieth year of Jeroboam king of Israel reigned Asa over Judah. 10 And forty and one years reigned he in Jerusalem. And his mother’s name was Maachah, the daughter of Abishalom. 11 And Asa did that which was right in the eyes of the LORD, as did David his father.”

Then verse 13 says:

"And also Maachah his [Asa’s] mother, even her he removed from being queen, because she had made an idol in a grove; and Asa destroyed her idol, and burnt it by the brook Kidron.

So Asa, of the line of David had his mother Maachah as his queen until he removed her for her idolatry. Further proof that the queen in the Davidic kingdom was the mother, not the wife of the king. And the queen sat on the right of the king.

Now let’s look at that Psalm I mentioned earlier, Psalm 45. This psalm is powerful for several reasons. But in verse 9 it tells us who sits at Jesus right side and it is the queen:

“9 Kings’ daughters were among thy honourable women: upon thy right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir.”

But there is more. Verse 17 speaks of the queen as, “17 I will make thy name to be remembered in all generations: therefore shall the people praise thee for ever and ever.”

Compare that verse with what Mary says in Luke 1:48:

“48 For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.”

The person who sits at Jesus right side is the Blessed Virgin Mary, the queen of the kingdom, the mother of the last Davidic king who is Jesus. That’s why James and John could not sit at either side of Jesus in His kingdom. And notice that Solomon says to his mother, the queen, “…ask on, my mother: for I will not say thee nay.”

At the wedding feast at Cana scripture records Jesus as saying, “Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.” Then scripture records Mary telling the servants, “Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it.” Mary knows Jesus, like Solomon, would not refuse her request. These events at Cana recorded in scripture point to the Davidic kingshp of Jesus and Mary as the Queen of the kingdom. And of course the kingdom is Heaven so the title of Queen of Heaven is entirely fitting for Mary.

 

[Nathan_Wagar]

It’s really a bit beside the point, whether someone asked Mary or not. She interceded on the behalf of their need. And the Bible did not directly say that they asked her, but that seems to be a bit trivial of a game to play to avoid a potentially uncomfortable implication. Performing acrobatics with the passage doesn’t change the fact that Mary interceded on their behalf, because if she hadn’t, it wouldn’t have happened.

 

[GraceSofia]

Was it perhaps the combination of the concept of the Blessed Virgin Mary being the Mother of all believers as derived from the Crucifixion account with the idea that Mother Mary is our most powerful intercessor because of her sinlessness?
*
“Confess therefore your sins one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The supplication of a righteous man availeth much in its working.” (James 5:16)*
*
“When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith he to the disciple, Behold, thy mother! And from that hour the disciple took her unto his own home.” (John 19:26)*

 

[Apryl]

Not so. At least, it’s not reported that way. None of the Bible translations I’ve seen say anything about Mary being asked to intercede.

I never said that Mary was asked to intercede. What I said, and will continue to say, is that they made their needs known to her.

That is all.