Mary, Full of Grace and Liturgy, Full of Glory

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JoeFreedom

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As Catholics, we say that because Mary was full of grace, she was indeed given the most grace and although she was capable sin, being full of glory she did not sin. The word full helps us know that there was no sin in her, at all, thus sinless.

I believe Mary was preserved from sin as the CC teaches, and so my question is not in whether she was or was not. However, it struck me at Mass today that during the Eucharistic Liturgy when we join in the song of the angels and say: “Holy, holy, holy, Lord God of power and might, heaven and earth are full of your glory.”, that the word full cannot mean that there is no sin, because obviously there is.

If we take the word full to mean no sin in the case of Mary, how do we as Catholics understand that in the case of the Eucharistic Liturgy for the earth and defend that. How is that we interpret full in one case to mean “no sin present” and the other “sin is present”?

I hope that makes sense.
 
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JoeFreedom said:
If we take the word full to mean no sin in the case of Mary, how do we as Catholics understand that in the case of the Eucharistic Liturgy for the earth and defend that. How is that we interpret full in one case to mean “no sin present” and the other “sin is present”?
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Glory is not grace.
 
To begin with, “full of your glory” is very different than “full of grace”. Grace is essentially the supernatural virtues. Glory is harder to pin down, but it could be said that Hell glorifies God in a way, so they are obviously not identical. It might be helpful to note that in the Greek context of Luke, “full of grace” is actually a title.
 
Yes, I’m aware, but it’s not grace or glory I’m asking about, it is how the word full is used with them.

If I said, “this glass is full of water” and “this bucket is full of liquid”, the glass/bucket and/or water/liquid is not what is in question. If I interpret both of those sentences using the word full, each of those objects are completely full. So what I’m asking about is the interpretation of the word full.
 
JoeFreedom said:
As Catholics, we say that because Mary was full of grace, she was indeed given the most grace and although she was capable sin, being full of glory she did not sin. The word full helps us know that there was no sin in her, at all, thus sinless .
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Do you have a source for this, please? I am not debating the sinlessness of Mary. I completely agree she was sinless. Not sure what the word “Full” in particular has to do with that though.
 
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My impression is that you’re reading too much into the use of the word “full”. As someone else said, “full of grace” is a title. Mary was not sinless because she was full of grace rather than half-full of grace. She was sinless because God made her without original sin and she never committed a sin while on earth.
With respect to “full of your glory”, as someone else said, glory is not grace, and “full of your glory” is not a title.
 
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