Mary Full of Grace: The Greek Words

[Contarini]

As someone has already noted all greek lexicons acknowledge that Kecharitomene is a perfect passive particple. The Perfect tense means as follows:**
Perfect Tense**
The basic thought of the perfect tense is that the progress of an action has been completed and the results of the action are continuing on, in full effect(perfect passive participle).
what is completed the charito is translated as grace which ultimatly means she was completly graced and the action is continuting in full effect. All Bibles prior to 1500 translated as full of grace, and so did the arameic peschitta from arount 200-400 AD translate as full of grace. The original 1611 King James translated as highly favoured, even eliminating the word grace, although in the margin notes they noted it could be rendered as much graced. The Geneva Bible also translated as highly favored but in the Geneva commentary they noted that it was legitamate to translate as full of grace.

However, Luke 1:28 uses a special conjugated form of “charitoo.” It uses “kecharitomene,” while Ephesians 1:6 uses "echaritosen," which is a different form of the verb “charitoo.” Echaritosen means “he graced” (bestowed grace**).**** Echaritosen** signifies a momentary action, an action brought to pass. (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament, p.166). Whereas, Kecharitomene, the perfect passive participle, shows a completeness with a permanent result. Kecharitomene denotes continuance of a completed action (H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b; also Blass and DeBrunner, p.175).

" ‘Highly favoured’ (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians. 1:6, . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)

The perfect participle is a regular part of Greek grammar–it’s not a “special” tense. It doesn’t mean that the action described is perfect or unique. Of course it means that the action described in the past is still continuing, so if you’re simply trying to refute the silly claim of some Protestants that Mary’s being “favored” had no permanent effect on her status, then you have a good case. Also, I think “full of grace” is a fine translation, as is “highly favored.” Translation is not a literal, exact enterprise (as those of you who criticize poor old Luther never seem to understand).

But if you’re trying to make some kind of argument (as Patrick Madrid does) that the participle necessarily implies or points toward the Immaculate Conception, then you’re straining the grammatical point to a ridiculous degree.

Edwin

 

[RyanL]

…But if you’re trying to make some kind of argument (as Patrick Madrid does) that the participle necessarily implies or points toward the Immaculate Conception, then you’re straining the grammatical point to a ridiculous degree.

I’m curious – as a Protestant, what significance (if any) do you attach to ‘kecharitomene’ being used as an independent nominative, particularly in light of the Biblical precedent for such usages by God and His messengers?

God Bless,
RyanL

 

[porthos11]

But if you’re trying to make some kind of argument (as Patrick Madrid does) that the participle necessarily implies or points toward the Immaculate Conception, then you’re straining the grammatical point to a ridiculous degree.

Edwin

Actually, the combination of passive, perfect, participle, vocative, substantive, does indeed point, that is, hint at the Immaculate Conception. It’s not an outright proof text, however.

 

[Harry_John]

I printed the whole thread,28 pages! Good review of both Greek and English Grammar Very interesting; but did Mary speak Greek? Is not the word under discussion a Greek translation of the Aramaic. Luke must have gotten the infant narrative from Mary or a close confidant of Mary. Does the English translation of the Aramaic Peshitta mean “full of grace”? Is it possible that Jerome used the Aramaic writings to translate into Latin as"gratia plena"? While this question is out side the scope of the thread, I think the basic discussion relates to “What did Gabriel say to Mary”, and what did it mean in any language?

Thanks for letting me butt in

Harry John

 

[NotWorthy]

I printed the whole thread,28 pages! Good review of both Greek and English Grammar Very interesting; but did Mary speak Greek? Is not the word under discussion a Greek translation of the Aramaic. Luke must have gotten the infant narrative from Mary or a close confidant of Mary. Does the English translation of the Aramaic Peshitta mean “full of grace”? Is it possible that Jerome used the Aramaic writings to translate into Latin as"gratia plena"? While this question is out side the scope of the thread, I think the basic discussion relates to “What did Gabriel say to Mary”, and what did it mean in any language?

Thanks for letting me butt in

Harry John

Since we can’t be sure of what language Gabriel spoke to Mary, we CAN be sure that God inspired Luke to write these words in Greek. That’s why the Greek is so important in this discussion.