J
Josh316
Guest
I realize that the Catholic interpretation of revelation 12 is that the woman is Mary. I believe it is also the Church’s position that Mary did not go through labor pains due to not being stained by original sin? Because of this I have a few questions. I have an NAB (New American Bible) Catholic companion edition bible. In this bible on the side of the page are footnotes explaining what most of these verses mean. When it gets to the verse describing the woman with the crown with the moon under her feet etc. my bible says the woman is Israel? Is this the Church’s teaching as well? And my last question is one that really bothers me. When my bible gets to the part about the woman being in labor pains the footnote on the side of the page says “this is because of Eve’s original sin.” But I’m confused. This is, after all, a Catholic bible, so if Mary didn’t experience labor pain and is the woman in revelation, why would my Catholic bible make no mention of the woman being Mary and, even if the Church teaches that the woman is both Mary and Israel why the labor pains?