I find the opening statement, "“Mary said herself she rejoiced in God HER SAVIOR. Who needs saving? Sinners! Mary was NOT sinless” much more valid than, and logical than what you’re saying.
This statement is invalidated by the fact that you did not validate this claim.
If you came here arguing for the validity of my opening statement (which isn’t my opening statement), then everybody would by default know everything you said below. You just wasted some good debate time.
So, to start off this discussion, I will give you the floor by saying why this argument from the objectors of the Immaculate Conception (IC) is more valid and logical than my argument against it.
You have to believe Mary was sinless; therefore, it’s known to all that your position is driven primarly by your presuppositions. (If you don’t believe Mary is immaculately conceived and sinless, you can’t be RC.)
So? You start by the presupposition of Sola Scriptura, right? Whatever your answer is, it is supposed to be a “Yes”.
But as it is my belief and perhaps my primary reason (whatever that means) for my argument, my secondary reason (whatever that means) is somewhere where we can all agree: Definitions. The definition of “Savior” was the crux of my argument and NOT that I originally believed it.
So, tell me why my argument is less valid and less logical than the objectors’ arguments.
**Here is my argument in a nutshell:
Needing a savior is NOT contingent only upon being fallen.**
I don’t have to believe anything about Mary except for that recorded in the Biblical record, and according to the statesments of the whole of Scripture, I can only conclude that Mary is not sinless.
Addendum: based on your interpretation of Scripture.
Ok, did you not read my plea? I want to discuss this argument, and NOT the IC itself. Sure, there will be tangents. That’s fine. But I want mainly to discuss this argument and not the IC itself BECAUSE there are so many arguments for and against it that this thread will lose its focus. Catch my drift?
If memory serves me correctly, the Roman Catholic church herself states that Mary being sinless is not “necessary” to anything concerning Mary, but that it is “fitting” that she be considered sinless.
So what if its not necessary? Our very existence is not necessary. Does that change its significance? God saw it “fitting” that we share in His existence (i.e. share in His Love).
The church, by reason of her belief that she has the authority to proclaim whatever she will regarding anything Christian, has proclaimed Mary sinless on that basis.
Nope. She does not “proclaim whatever she will”. She proclaims what has been believed since the dawn Christianity/Catholicism. That is what we believe. Take it from a Catholic.
IOW, Mary is said to be sinless only because the church has declared her so.
“IOW” means “In other words”. These words have absolutely no affiliation with the previous sentiment, nor is it a logical following.
Mary is said to be sinless because she was… sinless. Whether or not the Church infallibly proclaims that Mary is sinless, she was still believed to be sinless from the dawn of Christianity.
Anyway, I’m done correcting you on Catholic beliefs. Can we stay on topic here? Pretty please?
Why is the objector’s argument more logical and valid than mine?