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HalfAngel_18
Guest
Does the Catholic church believe Mary was not a sinner?
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Franciscan
Guest
“Hail, Full of grace”.
grace is the oppostite of sin. To be full of grace is to be without sin.
To the serpent he said, “I will put enmity between you and the woman”
The woman whose offspring would crush the serpents head is Mary.
So enmity exists between Mary and the Serpent(devil).
Enmity means ‘total opposition’.
One is full of grace the other full of sin.
One is the epidomy of sinlessness the other the epidomy of sinfullness.
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marty1818
Guest
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1ke
Guest
Yes, that is correct.
Mary was preserved from Original Sin at the moment of her conception and remained personally sinless her entire life.
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MarcoPolo
Guest
Incidentally, even Martin Luther believed she was without sin from conception. 
C
Cristiano
Guest
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Rolltide
Guest
Please check out Luke 1:28. It is not a proof text by any means, but it is the most important scriptural reference for the Immaculate Conception. The following is from the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible: The Gospel of Luke by Scott Hahn and Curtis Mitch:
Full of grace: This is the only biblical instance where an angel addresses someone by a title instead of a personal name. Two considerations help to clarify its meaning. (1) The expression full of grace is rooted in Catholic tradition and traced to St. Jerome’s translation of this verse in the Latin Vulgate. Although fundamentally accurate, it lacks some of the depth of the Greek original. Luke could have described her with the words full of grace (Gk. pleres charitos) as he did of Stephen in Acts 6:8, yet here he uses a different expression (Gk. kecharitomene) that is even more revealing than the traditional rendering. It indicates that God has already “graced” Mary previous to this point, making her a vessel who “has been” and “is now” filled with divine life. (2) Alternate translations like “favored one” or “highly favored” are possible but inadequate. Because of the unparalleled role that Mary accepts at this turning point in salvation history, the best translation is the most exalted one. For God endowed Mary with an abundance of grace to prepare her for the vocation of divine motherhood and to make her a sterling example of Christian holiness (CCC 490-93, 722).
Full of grace: This is the only biblical instance where an angel addresses someone by a title instead of a personal name. Two considerations help to clarify its meaning. (1) The expression full of grace is rooted in Catholic tradition and traced to St. Jerome’s translation of this verse in the Latin Vulgate. Although fundamentally accurate, it lacks some of the depth of the Greek original. Luke could have described her with the words full of grace (Gk. pleres charitos) as he did of Stephen in Acts 6:8, yet here he uses a different expression (Gk. kecharitomene) that is even more revealing than the traditional rendering. It indicates that God has already “graced” Mary previous to this point, making her a vessel who “has been” and “is now” filled with divine life. (2) Alternate translations like “favored one” or “highly favored” are possible but inadequate. Because of the unparalleled role that Mary accepts at this turning point in salvation history, the best translation is the most exalted one. For God endowed Mary with an abundance of grace to prepare her for the vocation of divine motherhood and to make her a sterling example of Christian holiness (CCC 490-93, 722).
- Gabriel’s declaration points in the direction of Mary’s Immaculate Conception. According to Pope Pius IX’s 1854 definition Ineffabilis Deus, Luke’s Annunciation narrative is an important indicator of Mary’s lifelong holiness. God is her “Savior” (1:47) in the most perfect way possible: he sanctified Mary in the first instance of her conception and preserved her entirely from sin and even from the inclination toward sin that we experience.
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1ke
Guest
The dogmatic statement states she was “preserved immaculate from all stain of original sin”.Was she preserved or redeemed at the moment of her conception?
From a practical point of view is the same because only in that way she could be the pure vessel. However, from a theological point of view could be quite different. Or it could just look like it is different but it is not!
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Gamera
Guest
Yes.
Jesus saved Mary. Make no mistake about that. Mary herself calls Jesus her own Savior (Luke 1:47). But Jesus saved her in a unique way, from the moment of her conception. Mary is the only person in history who can be said to have needed a savior but not a redeemer – she didn’t need to be “redeemed” later in life because her salvation occured at the moment of her conception. We know this because when the angel greeted her she already was “full of grace.” (Luke 1:28).
The distinction is important because people sometimes accuse Catholics of thinking that Mary ‘didn’t need a savior.’ Of course she did. That is exactly what the Immaculate Conception was – Mary being saved by Jesus.
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justinthemartyr
Guest
Yes, God preprepared her before the foundation of the world to bring His only begotten Son into the world. If she had sin, then He would have sin, since her very nature was within Him.
he is fully man and fully God, 100% of each, not half and half.
God conceived with Mary, within the womb of Mary, the Second Person of the Most Holy Trinity, Jesus Christ.
She is the fulfillment of the ark of the Old Covenant, which held three types of Christ.
Only she is the more perfected fulfilment of that Ark, and held the Actual God-man within her pure vessel that no man could touch in that way.
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HalfAngel_18
Guest
Where does it say that in the Bible?
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HalfAngel_18
Guest
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Gamera
Guest
The Revised Standard Version. “And he came to her and said, ‘Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!’.”
The Greek word is kecharitomene, which is in a tense implying both past and present, as if to say, ‘has been full of grace, and is now full of grace.’
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