J
joe370
Guest
Hey Richard Kastner, I couldn’t get a response from RevG so I thought I would ask you. He said that "all’ in Romans 3 can only mean “all.” Let’s apply that same logic to the following verses:
Did all the world go after Christ in the following verse?
“… the whole world has gone after him” John 12:19
Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in the Jordan?
“All of Judea, including all the people of Jerusalem, went out to see and hear John. And when they confessed their sins, he baptized them in the Jordan River.” Mark
Did Caesar tax the people from India, China, and South America in the following verse? Matthew 2:3
“And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.” Luke 2:1
“When Herod the king heard this, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him”
That would be every single person in Jerusalem if “all” means all inclusive.
What about: “ … Then all the disciples left him [Jesus] and fled.” Matthew 26:56
John followed Christ all the way to the cross.
Did the whole world lieth in the wicked one in the following verse?
“Ye are of God, little children”, and the whole world lieth in the wicked one”. 1 John 5:19
Romans 15: “I myself am satisfied about you, my brethren, that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, and able to instruct one another.”
Of course only God has “all” knowledge.
If “all” in the preceding verses allow for exceptions then surely “all” in Romans 3:23 can allow for exceptions too - yes, no, maybe?
Your thoughts friend?
Did all the world go after Christ in the following verse?
“… the whole world has gone after him” John 12:19
Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in the Jordan?
“All of Judea, including all the people of Jerusalem, went out to see and hear John. And when they confessed their sins, he baptized them in the Jordan River.” Mark
Did Caesar tax the people from India, China, and South America in the following verse? Matthew 2:3
“And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.” Luke 2:1
“When Herod the king heard this, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him”
That would be every single person in Jerusalem if “all” means all inclusive.
What about: “ … Then all the disciples left him [Jesus] and fled.” Matthew 26:56
John followed Christ all the way to the cross.
Did the whole world lieth in the wicked one in the following verse?
“Ye are of God, little children”, and the whole world lieth in the wicked one”. 1 John 5:19
Romans 15: “I myself am satisfied about you, my brethren, that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, and able to instruct one another.”
Of course only God has “all” knowledge.
If “all” in the preceding verses allow for exceptions then surely “all” in Romans 3:23 can allow for exceptions too - yes, no, maybe?
Your thoughts friend?