Mary - sinner - Romans 3?

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Thanks, and I am sure you did not mean. No doubt your fervor for your beliefs about Mary is what you wanted to defend, and from your perspective, I can not blame you.

Of course Jesus is a member of the Human race. His DNA was Human. That was never in doubt. Some Theologians believed that Jesus appeared in a physical human body several times in the OT, such as the fourth man in the fire in Babylon. And again in a physical human body after His Resurrection.

My body is human because it was formed by human genes. A Bison is a Bison from having Bison genes. Forgive my science background.

And from the Bible I know that I am a spirit wearing a human body.

Did Jesus get the Y Chromosome from Joseph? The answer is NO! But they must have came from somewhere. God must have provided the Y chromosome. Does this make Jesus an alien because God provided the Y Chromosome which is what make males - males. So Jesus did not have the Y Chromosome that was handed down from Adam.

Jesus can not be a male human unless He has the Y Chromosome. Does this make Jesus an alien because God provided the Y Chromosome? Or half human and half alien? Of course not. Nor would Jesus be an alien if God provided bot the X and Y Chromosomes. Think about it. Adam did not have a physical mother nor Father. God made Adam with his XY Chromosome. And God provided Eve with her XX Chromosomes. Neither of them are ‘aliens’, they were both what we call - HUMAN! We are all simply asexual spirits when we leave our dead body.

And keep in mind what Paul wrote:

1 Co 15:50

Now I say this, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.
NASU

And Finally, Jesus had a 100% human body, and His Spirit is 100% God. The only Begotten Son of God the Father.

And when Jesus body died, He left His body and returned to the Father. “Father, into your hands I commit my Spirit.”

Lk 23:45-47
46 And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, “Father,INTO YOUR HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT.” Having said this, He breathed His last. NASU

But in His case, God resurrected His body, and Jesus did what no other man ever did, He returned on the 3rd day in His Resurrected Body.

MaryBeloved, We are simply sharing our views. It is a Good thing we are not saved by our knowledge, but by God’s grace and love for us. Peace.
You side stepped my posting and I understand why. Do not underestimate the salvific ability of knowledge. Knowledge begets, wisdom…wisdom can lead to Understanding, Understanding can lead to right judgement, right judgement can lead to courage, courage can strengthen right knowledge that can cause reverence and lead to Fear of the Lord. Fear of the Lord is the beginning of Wisdom.

There is saving grace in Knowledge and to suggest otherwise would be to deny the Gifts of the Holy Spirit.👍
 
Really. So then you are saying Mary played no part in helping us have our sins redeemed huh?:eek:
You must be confusing me with someone else. I never said that. I said the Bible specifically states Jesus is the only sinless human being. It doesnt say that about Mary.
God said she was FULL of GRACE. How can you be full of grace and then have room for sin?? Maybe you can help me there understand that.
If I remember correctly, The only place Scripture where those words are used is in reference to Jesus:

Jhn 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth.

Altho translated differently, the same words used to address Mary are applied to all believers in Eph 1:6 meaning being made accepted to God.
St Irenaeus says in Gen 3:15 that Marys victory over satan would not have been PERFECT if she had been under his power. He said that proves she entered this world without Original Sin.

What do you think? Do you think if Mary had sin she could overpower the devil??
You are quoting Scripture that popes say is not correct.

Here is an excerpt of their decision:
“In realizing this revision, the old text of the Vulgate edition was taken into consideration word for word, namely, whenever the original texts are accurately rendered, such as they are found in modern critical editions; however the text was prudently improved, whenever it departs from them or interprets them less correctly.”

The complete text can be read at
ewtn.com/library/PAPALDOC/JPTHESAU.HTM
Apostolic Constitution SCRIPTURARUM THESAURUS
Pope John Paul II

Genesis 3:15 is one of the passages that was “prudently improved” to match Protestant Bibles.
Now you have another problem. If you deny Mary the new Eve as being that women in Gen, having victory over the devil, how could she be the Mother of GOD then?
Please cite the verse calling Mary the “new Eve”. I have not seen the words “new Eve” in any Bible.
 
@Telestia,

First of all, Thanx for accepting my apology. Sometimes meaning can be lost on written messages because we have no benefit of watching demeanor, hearing voice, tone, catching nuance etc. It can appear that someone is on the attack when they are really not. Plus, I confess that splashing a lot of !!!s and :eek::eek::eek:s in such media is unwise and doesn’t really help.

Secondly, I’d like to correct you on the motive you suppose for my responses to you. While I love Our Lady entirely and place complete confidence in her, my responses are actually not about safeguarding or defending her, but about Our Lord himself! And our faith. If you look at my responses carefully, they’re all about Our Lord’s nature, not Mary’s.

Thirdly, you say we are human through possessing “human genes”- But what is “human”? You forget that this material is called human because it is possessed by all humans and is common to them- no human gets this material from a non-human source or from the blue! Each of us has material that we got from pre-existing members of the species, and the ultimate source of all of that genetic substance that defines the species Human, is a common ancestor that the scriptures give the name- Adam, a name that literally means mankind! This genetic material is the blueprint or what defines this original man’s biology, and it’s the same nature that his descendants get- A cat does not give birth to puppies or cubs. It’s because we posses this man’s nature that we form an identical species with him- We are mankind- literally Adam!

Fourthly, you speak of God appearing in Human form in OT. However, the scriptures never tell us that God literally took on a physical/material body, but only of appearances witnessed by the men of the times. The only time that the scriptures tell us unambiguously that God did so is at the incarnation of our Lord, the Word became flesh.

Fifthly, the example of the sperm signifying an alien truly misses it, because the underlying reason for calling our Lord’s bodily nature alien as per your theory, was not that you suggested that it happened in an odd/strange/non-natural way…It was that the nature itself of the body, as per that theory, would be alien! Not the manner in which it has come about.

Eve herself had only one source for her humanity, Adam, she is Adam-kind, not her own special/separate kind- but Adam-kind/mankind. There’s no “Eve-kind”, or anything of such sort. Why? Precisely for the reason that God did not create her by a separate act of creation- something God could easily have done if he so willed. But When God made Adam, he meant to make exactly one kind of being. Adam saw Eve and recognized her as “Adam-kind” of his own nature- Now here is Flesh of my flesh, bone of my bone- You don’t think he meant, she kinda looks like me? No, my friend- He meant, she is of my very own flesh, my exact nature, we are one kind- one species. If this unity of being did not matter, what would be the point of human procreation? Why did God have us come into being by this one way only? Why not Just make Eve completely “fresh” as he had made Adam? Why put Adam to sleep and literally take from him, in order to fashion the second member of Adam’s species, and then command them to be fruitful? Why not create each of us afresh as he did Adam? Come on now, really really think about all this- What would be the point if not to hand down the one nature of humanity to all Adam’s ancestors? What do we really give to our children if not our nature?

Saying that Christ was the only one who actually was not of “Adam-kind” as explained above, that he is of his own kind, and the only member of this new kind, a new being, that cannot call himself in any way the son of Adam, or even “man” which means Adam- A parallel human-like species next to the one species of mankind! This is truly radical and novel- And contradicts scripture, that calls Christ man, the son of man, the 2nd Adam, and tells us that Our Lady conceived him in her womb. Christ may not have had a biological father, and that’s why his conception is not only of divine mystery (incarnation) alone but a bonafide miracle as well, but he most certainly had a biological mother who gave him the humanity that she herself got from her ancestors, who got it from Adam. So, Jesus was not a new act of creation by God apart from his one act of making Adam with all his proper nature, rather he was a participation by God in that one family, species, for love alone, in order to redeem it.
 
Ginger - You must be confusing me with someone else. I never said that. I said the Bible specifically states Jesus is the only sinless human being. It doesnt say that about Mary.
Hi Ginger. 🙂 I am assuming you are referring to: …all have sinned and fall short of the glory…" to suggest that Jesus is the only sinless human being?
If I remember correctly, The only place Scripture where those words are used is in reference to Jesus:
Jhn 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth.
You do not believe that the angel Gabriel said to Mary: hail Kecharitomene?
Please cite the verse calling Mary the “new Eve”. I have not seen the words “new Eve” in any Bible.
I have not seen the words sola scriptura, Trinity, original sin in the bible either but you embrace the ideology of those things - right? 👍

You don’t believe that the following is God foretelling the coming of the second Adam and Eve:

“And the LORD God said unto the serpent … I will put enmity between thee and the woman, (Mary) - and between thy seed and her seed (Jesus) - it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.” KJV Genesis 3:14-15
 
Hey Rinnie…
rinnie;8451014]You must read the scripture and think WHO was Jesus taking to and why. If all Men were sinners was Jesus not a Man? If the Blessed Mother was a sinner how could she be HOLY and Blessed among women. Would she not be the same among women?
👍
The next time you are asked this question, ask one back, such as you deny that Christ was Fully Human? Was he not MAN? If they say well he don;t count. then you say like I do, where is that written in the bible, Jesus don;t count? THen say I agree Jesus don’t COUNT as a sinner and neither does his Mother:D
They will just say: scripture explicitly says that Jesus did not sin, “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.”

And then ask where the same is said about His blessed mother.

To which I say: Luke 1. Well, you know how the rest goes…One thing they shouldn’t deny, but do, is the fact that the angel Gabriel said to Mary: hail kecharitomene, which is the Geek phrase for full of grace.
 
You side stepped my posting and I understand why. Do not underestimate the salvific ability of knowledge. Knowledge begets, wisdom…wisdom can lead to Understanding, Understanding can lead to right judgement, right judgement can lead to courage, courage can strengthen right knowledge that can cause reverence and lead to Fear of the Lord. Fear of the Lord is the beginning of Wisdom.

There is saving grace in Knowledge and to suggest otherwise would be to deny the Gifts of the Holy Spirit.👍
I did not side step your post Coptic Christian, I would not do that to you. I simply owed my initial replies to Marybeloved, hmmm, it just occurred to me may be Mary Beloved, and not Mary Be loved. But I can not see what difference the meaning is. Anyway, I can not reply now to any post, it is difficult to read. Much less understand. My mind is neither here nor there right now.

O sleep, O gentle sleep, nature’s soft nurse!
Sleep that knits up the ravell’d sleave of care,
… and our little life is rounded with a sleep. W.S.
 
Hey Rinnie…

👍

They will just say: scripture explicitly says that Jesus did not sin, “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.”

And then ask where the same is said about His blessed mother.

To which I say: Luke 1. Well, you know how the rest goes…One thing they shouldn’t deny, but do, is the fact that the angel Gabriel said to Mary: hail kecharitomene, which is the Geek phrase for full of grace.
Hey bud, thanks for helping me out, I just got back been real busy lately.

Did you ever go to a Football game. I am a Steeler Fan as you can see by where I live!! Go Steelers. Anyway there really is a method to my madness here.

The last time I went the Parking Lot said FULL!! Guess that means there is no ROOM for a car or Suv or Truck!!😃

Now our dear Virgin Mother was FULL of Grace. Guess that means there is no room for sin either don’t ya agree!!😉

I guess when the Angel said that our dear Mother was FULL of GODS GRACE people seem to feel that means there is room for sin:confused:🤷 How can that be possible. I guess FULL is not FULL anymore:shrug:
 
You must be confusing me with someone else. I never said that. I said the Bible specifically states Jesus is the only sinless human being. It doesnt say that about Mary.

If I remember correctly, The only place Scripture where those words are used is in reference to Jesus:

Jhn 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth.

Altho translated differently, the same words used to address Mary are applied to all believers in Eph 1:6 meaning being made accepted to God.

You are quoting Scripture that popes say is not correct.

Here is an excerpt of their decision:
“In realizing this revision, the old text of the Vulgate edition was taken into consideration word for word, namely, whenever the original texts are accurately rendered, such as they are found in modern critical editions; however the text was prudently improved, whenever it departs from them or interprets them less correctly.”

The complete text can be read at
ewtn.com/library/PAPALDOC/JPTHESAU.HTM
Apostolic Constitution SCRIPTURARUM THESAURUS
Pope John Paul II

Genesis 3:15 is one of the passages that was “prudently improved” to match Protestant Bibles.

Please cite the verse calling Mary the “new Eve”. I have not seen the words “new Eve” in any Bible.
Let me give you a heads up here. Jesus is the NEW ADAM guess you did not ever hear that either.

Well here is how it goes. ADAM sinned and because of his sin we were stained with ORIGINAL SIN. Jesus did not sin, so by his perfect honor of his Father he TOOK AWAY SIN.

EVE sinned.

Now here is the heads up Jesus did not SIN he took away sin, he was completely faithful to God.

Second heads up, The Blessed Mother did not sin, she was completely faithful to God. Mary said YOU SEE before YOU the LORDS servant let it happen to me as you have said!!!

So there you got it the New Adam and the New Eve.
 
Hey bud, thanks for helping me out, I just got back been real busy lately.

Did you ever go to a Football game. I am a Steeler Fan as you can see by where I live!! Go Steelers. Anyway there really is a method to my madness here.

The last time I went the Parking Lot said FULL!! Guess that means there is no ROOM for a car or Suv or Truck!!😃

Now our dear Virgin Mother was FULL of Grace.
Excellent analogy! :thumbsup:I live in Michigan so I can have to be a Lions fan,but I have to admit I was a big Pittsburgh Steelers fan in the days of Lynn Swann. 😃 As for now, it’s: go Detroit Tigers. They are playing Texas in the American League Championship Series right now and it’s all tied up…🍿 Shoot, the Rangers just hit a home run to win the game. :crying: LOL…
 
Let me give you a heads up here. …
And may I return the favor:

The very first mention found in Church teaching denies the claim of Mary’s sinless perfection: (Origen at Alexandria (185-232))

No documentation from the Church during this same era is found to disagree with Origen claim.

It was almost two hundred later before the first documented instance of a Church official making claim to the immaculate conception of Mary.(ie St. Ephram)

Unlike Origen, St. Ephram did have opposition to his claim. St. Basil & St. Chrysostom both disagreed with Ephram and claim Mary sinned
 
And may I return the favor:

The very first mention found in Church teaching denies the claim of Mary’s sinless perfection: (Origen at Alexandria (185-232))

No documentation from the Church during this same era is found to disagree with Origen claim.

It was almost two hundred later before the first documented instance of a Church official making claim to the immaculate conception of Mary.(ie St. Ephram)

Unlike Origen, St. Ephram did have opposition to his claim. St. Basil & St. Chrysostom both disagreed with Ephram and claim Mary sinned
Would you point to the exact text that your are referring to about Origen. Where exactly is this denial?
 
Ginger2;8452833]And may I return the favor:
The very first mention found in Church teaching denies the claim of Mary’s sinless perfection: (Origen at Alexandria (185-232))
No documentation from the Church during this same era is found to disagree with Origen claim.
Not true:

“He was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle was exempt from putridity and corruption.” Hippolytus, Orations Inillud, Dominus pascit me (ante A.D. 235).

“This Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten of God, is called Mary, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one.” Origen, Homily 1(A.D. 244).

Of course, one man does not make a council. 👍 Sadly, Origen was also later condemned as a heretic.
It was almost two hundred later before the first documented instance of a Church official making claim to the immaculate conception of Mary.(ie St. Ephram)
Unlike Origen, St. Ephram did have opposition to his claim. St. Basil & St. Chrysostom both disagreed with Ephram and claim Mary sinned
Augustin, a contemporary of Chrysostom, clearly disagreed with Chrysostom, just as men agreed and disagreed about other doctrines, including what should have been included in the canon and what shouldn’t. Thank God for the CC via council. 👍

We shouldn’t just cherry pick individual ECF’s to support our beliefs - right?

Origen and Chrysostom also agreed with the Catholic church regarding the Eucharist. Do you agree with them?
 
And may I return the favor:

The very first mention found in Church teaching denies the claim of Mary’s sinless perfection: (Origen at Alexandria (185-232))

No documentation from the Church during this same era is found to disagree with Origen claim.

It was almost two hundred later before the first documented instance of a Church official making claim to the immaculate conception of Mary.(ie St. Ephram)

Unlike Origen, St. Ephram did have opposition to his claim. St. Basil & St. Chrysostom both disagreed with Ephram and claim Mary sinned
Ginger, I thought that Origen lived from 185 AD to 154 AD? Another example of why one man’s opinion should not be binding on the church universal: Thomas Aquinas, the great Church philosopher, disagreed with the Immaculate Conception.
 
Ginger2;8451907]You must be confusing me with someone else. I never said that. I said the Bible specifically states Jesus is the only sinless human being. It doesnt say that about Mary.
Paul writes that “all Israel will be saved,” (11:26), but we know that is not so… Paul describes members of the Roman church as “…filled with all knowledge…” which clearly cannot be taken literally. More examples could be mentioned.

How does that affect your take on the following? Romans 3:23: “…all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.”

We see similar Jewish hyperbole in other passages. Jesus says:

“No one is good but God alone.”

Yet He also said:

The good person brings good things out of a good treasure…

And in each preceding verse the word for “good” is the same: agatho.

I think we have to be careful how we decides to interpret “all”, just as we have to be careful how we interpret ,“No one is good but God alone.”

Your thoughts?
 
Ginger…

Scenario:

One Christian defers to scripture and claims that scripture proves that Mary was a sinner. Another Christian defers to scripture and claims that scripture proves that Mary was not a sinner.

Did God leave the world with a means to resolve this doctrinal dilemma so that these 2 Christians can know, with certainty, who is wrong and who is right? Clearly scripture cannot, and both certainly cannot be right.
 
I did not side step your post Coptic Christian, I would not do that to you. I simply owed my initial replies to Marybeloved, hmmm, it just occurred to me may be Mary Beloved, and not Mary Be loved. But I can not see what difference the meaning is.
It’s Mary Beloved- Mary is much beloved and dear to me!😃
 
The Bible specifically states Jesus was sinless. No where does the Bible claim Mary was sinless.
Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.

Where does Scripture make this claim about Mary?
Excellent point. 👍
 
Yes! And although Jesus was tempted in every way, he remained sinless. That is why he is the ONLY one who could redeem us from our sins.

The Bible specifically states Jesus was sinless. No where does the Bible claim Mary was sinless.

Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.

Where does Scripture make this claim about Mary?
I lifted this from another site:

When the angel Gabriel appeared to Mary, he did not call her “Mary.” He called her “full of grace” (in Greek, kecharitomene)(Lk 1:43). The word kecharitomene means that Mary received a complete and perfect endowment of grace from God.* This perfect endowment occurred at Mary’s Immaculate Conception, when she was created by God without sin. Only one other person in Scripture is described as “full of grace,” and that person is Jesus Christ (John 1:14). *

To me this is clear scriptural proof that when St. Gabriel spoke to our Lady, before she was pregnant with Our Lord, even before she had a chance to say Yes or No to God, before she knew she was the prophesied virgin of old, she was already completely filled with grace. Now, I know that grace and sin do not reside together, that’s why the new life of grace in us washes away our sin. Now Mary was “full” of this grace- What place remains for sin? Where was her sin situate in that soul that was completely filled with grace to the extent that this was the identity by which the archangel “named her” in place of her name? The one filled with grace- This is who Mary was to the angels, what set her apart from every other human. The scriptures themselves bear this out by giving the exact same description to only one other- Holiness itself and the very source of grace- Our savior, Jesus Christ.
 
well let’s put it this way for those who need scripture.

Luke 1:38 And Mary said, “Behold, the bondslave of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her.

Doesn’t sound like evidence right? Think about this. Who’s to say that she “had” to say yes. She with her free will could have said "you know i realize what that entails on my end (she knew that if she accepted she would have to witness her child being murdered in some fashion according to Jewish scripture of the messiah). She didn’t because she was without original sin and had no sin after that.
 
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