Hey Ginger, Let’s assume the word “all” means just that, “all” humans. Jesus was fully human but of course He is an exception. If we accept an exception to the word “all” doesn’t it become difficult to prove that there are no other exceptions by simply quoting this same verse?
Examples of exceptions:
Did all the world go after Christ in the following verse?
“… the whole world has gone after him” John 12:19
Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in Jordan?
“And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.” Luke 2:1
Did Caesar tax the people from India, China, and South America ? Matthew 2:3
“When Herod the king heard this, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him”
Every single person in Jerusalem?
“ … Then all the disciples left him [Jesus] and fled.” Matthew 26:56
But we read in just two verses later that Peter did in fact follow Christ in Matthew 26:58. And in John 18:15-16 We read that another disciple followed Christ along with Simon Peter. And this other disciple knew the high priest and was therefore able to get Peter into the gate. This “other disciple,” is John. He even follows Christ all the way to the cross where he is identified as the “beloved disciple.” See John 19:26. The passage in John 21: 20-24 clarifies that he is none other than John, the author of the fourth Gospel.
Did the whole world lieth in the wicked one in the following verse?
“Ye are of God, little children”, and the whole world lieth in the wicked one”. 1 John 5:19
Romans 15: “I myself am satisfied about you, my brethren, that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, and able to instruct one another.”
Of course only God has “all” knowledge.
If “all” in the preceding verses allow for exceptions then surely “all” in Romans 3:23 can allow for exceptions too yes, no, maybe?
John said:
"Whoever sins belongs to the devil, because the devil has sinned from the beginning. Indeed, the Son of God was revealed to destroy the works of the devil.”
In Gen. 3 God put enmity between the devil and the woman. How could this be true if the “woman” at any time, belonged to the devil?" To be at enmity is for one person to be completely opposed to another, and it is God who makes this woman and Satan completely opposed to each other. Also notice that it is not mankind in general or even all women, but a specific woman that God is speaking about. What God does He does perfectly, and so wouldn’t this opposition between the woman in question and Satan be perfect.
For Mary to be completely opposed to Satan she could never have been on Satan’s side, against God. Therefore Mary (by the help of God’s grace) - never sinned, for if she had ever sinned she would certainly not be opposed to Satan at that time.
Your thoughts friend? I’m not trying to change your mind. Just wondering if any of this is plausible to you?
