C
Chaldean_Rite
Guest
The Blessed Mother’s question “how can this be since I know no man” ONLY makes sense in the context of her virginal consecration to God — She’s not some “dumb” girl that doesn’t know the story of the birds and the bees as some may paint her to be.So your implication is that a first century Jewish betrrothed couple would be having intercourse during the betrothal period, which is before the wedding day?
interesting…
where does it say that she never planned to have intercouse and have children. you are unable to definativly proove this from the text. above.you are adding your own interpretation into what Mary said.
remember they where engaged before the Angel came. Did they plan to have kids then not plan to have more kids? did they some how know that this was going to happen?
Why wouldn’t Luke report these ideas of yours to Theophilus, if what you are saying was believed from the very beiginning. Didn’t he wish to reinforce his charges beliefs… ??
Again, In view of the relationship between Luke and Theophilus, and Lukes intent, why didn’t Luke report these things as you say?
I think its fair to say that the only reasonable interpretation of why Mary asked that question to the Angel Gabriel is because if she were to interpret the words of the Angel in the normal sense, the sense of a non-consecrated person, the natural conclusion of would be that Mary and St. Joseph would have to have engage in the Marital Act (the Liturgy of the Body). But because Mary is wise and would like to keep her vow to God (her total consecration) she is prudent and asked the angel for clarification, lest she go back on her word.
And the fathers of the Church agree to this.