No. I don’t think Our Blessed Mother knew she was sinless. (Can’t prove it. Just my observations) As far as making a sin offering, where does it say a person is exempt if sinless. Mary would have sinned if she didn’t make a sin offering. It was the law. Like her Son, she was fulfilling all righteousness in as much as she can.
Read the whole chapter. The issue is what is sometimes called “Levitical Sin” or “Levitical Uncleanliness.” Under Jewish law, people who performed certain acts – such as preparing a corpse for burial, giving birth, and so on – were “unclean” and had to be purified and make an offering. These acts were obviously not sins in the sense of being offenses against God. In fact, some of them were not only moral but mandatory.
Exactly right. The Levitical law required ritual purification for many routine acts which resulted in “ritual impurity” but did not constitute sin.
And this is a good example of the ultra-Protestant use pf “proof texts.” Without taking the whole chapter into account and understanding the Levitical law, a wrong interpretation is placed on a single verse – making it say something it clearly does not mean.