Mary/ "Woman"

[orapronobis10]

I understand that the Church teaches that when Jesus calls his mother “Woman” he is not being disrespectful, but is referring to her as the woman from Genesis, chapter 3.

Does anyone know why Jesus calls the woman at the well in Samaria “Woman”?

 

[Layp3rs0n]

blinks … no idea. I thought of this question a while ago. Forgot to ask. I’m glad you did. Anyone else know?

 

[Todd_Easton]

Seems to me that “Woman” was simply a common form of address for Jesus (and Peter and angels):

Then Jesus answered her, “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly. (Matthew 15:28)

And when Jesus saw her, he called her and said to her, “Woman, you are freed from your infirmity.” (Luke 13:12)

But he denied it, saying, “Woman, I do not know him.” (Luke 22:55)

And Jesus said to her, “O woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come.” (John 2:4)

Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father. (John 4:21)

Jesus looked up and said to her, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?” (John 8:10)

When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son!” (John 19:26)

They said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping?” She said to them, “Because they have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him.” (John 20:13)

Jesus said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping? Whom do you seek?” Supposing him to be the gardener, she said to him, “Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away.” (John 20:15)

 

[Cachonga]

Todd Easton:

Seems to me that “Woman” was simply a common form of address for Jesus (and Peter and angels):

It’s because of things like this that I (and many other non-catholics) do not accept the infallibility of the RC Church. How can Jesus addressing His mother as “woman” be any more significant than the many other times the expression is used? But, since the church is “infallible”, then I am automatically wrong for doubting any “official” claim that Jesus is referencing Gen 3 in this way. I do agree that Jesus was not disrespecting Mary in any way.

 

[Mark77]

It’s because of things like this that I (and many other non-catholics) do not accept the infallibility of the RC Church. How can Jesus addressing His mother as “woman” be any more significant than the many other times the expression is used? But, since the church is “infallible”, then I am automatically wrong for doubting any “official” claim that Jesus is referencing Gen 3 in this way. I do agree that Jesus was not disrespecting Mary in any way.

**Apparently, your understanding of “Papal Infallibility” is fallible!

Because some theologian or clergy member makes a statement or gives their opinion about something does not make it an “Infallible” teaching of the Catholic Church.
**
The CA tract on Papal Infallibility says; **“Infallibility is not the absence of sin. Nor is it a charism that belongs only to the pope. Indeed, infallibility also belongs to the body of bishops as a whole, when, in doctrinal unity with the pope, they solemnly teach a doctrine as true. We have this from Jesus himself, who promised the apostles and their successors the bishops, the magisterium of the Church: “He who hears you hears me” (Luke 10:16), and “Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven” (Matt. 18:18).”/B]
**
i recommend you read this; catholic.com/library/Papal_Infallibility.asp

too many former Catholics erroneously left the Church founded by Jesus for their salvation & now spread misinformation about the Catholic Church, because they were misinformed, misunderstood or were never taught the Truth!

Sancta Maria, Mater Dei, Ora Pro Nobis Peccatoribus!

mark

 

[Nita]

I understand that the Church teaches that when Jesus calls his mother “Woman” he is not being disrespectful, but is referring to her as the woman from Genesis, chapter 3.

The significant part IMO is that after addressing her as “woman”, Jesus then says “Behold your mother”. This brings the Genesis account of Eve to mind – where she is first identified as “woman”
Gen 2:23 Then the man said,…she shall be called Woman.…
and later as “mother”.Gen 3:20 The man called his wife’s name Eve, because she was the mother of all living.
The progression in identity from woman to mother which takes place with Eve and Mary, is not present in the other instances…

 

[puzzleannie]

I Does anyone know why Jesus calls the woman at the well in Samaria “Woman”?

because she, like Mary, and the other women significant in the gospels, are women. It is only our modern culture that could even conceive of that word as a slur or a word of anything other than respect and honor. since as previous poster gives example, it was his preferred method of addressing women, it was obviously the accepted polite usage at the time, as we would say Ma’am or Miss, or Senora and so forth.

 

[kepha1]

I understand that the Church teaches that when Jesus calls his mother “Woman” he is not being disrespectful, but is referring to her as the woman from Genesis, chapter 3.

Does anyone know why Jesus calls the woman at the well in Samaria “Woman”?

Because she wasn’t a man?
The Samaritan woman symbolizes a type of figurehead for the 5 Assyrian tribes that resettled the area ( 2 Kings 17:13-34). The woman herself stood for Samaria, and her five husbands stood for the five alien tribes. The man she was now living with, who was not her true husband, stood for the Samaritan religion.
womeninthebible.net/2.8.Samaritan_woman.htm

The term “woman” was a title of distinction or respect in this case as well as it was for Jesus’ mother.

 

[Benadam]

I think this story should be taken at face value. This woman’s life history paralleled the people of Samaria’s history. What the whole nation had experienced, it’s ups and downs, from it’s beginning, this woman had experienced. I doubt this was something unknown to those who came to know her. I think that’s why her testimony and Jesus knowing ‘everything she did’ brought so many to believe just on her account. This would be unlikely imo if she weren’t already someone of note. Someone who perhaps had a hidden knowldege of what Samarian’s were made of. She is an archtype imo and since the Incarnation trully brought eternity into time and history I think that many other people around Jesus were as well. Consider Nathanial’s first meeting with Jesus below and how the text seems to have a similar feel and sequence to it as the Samaritan woman’s meeting.

John 1
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to him: and he saith of him: Behold an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no guile. 48 Nathanael saith to him: Whence knowest thou me? Jesus answered, and said to him: Before that Philip called thee, when thou wast under the fig tree, I saw thee. 49 Nathanael answered him, and said: Rabbi, thou art the Son of God, thou art the King of Israel.

 

[rcjones]

Please read this with care. I will use terms that do not indicate the moral position of the people involved, but identify a motif in sensus plenior that has an interpretation outside the literal meaning of the historical accounts.

In sensus plenior, nearly all the women of the Bible are used in the prostitute-virgin bride motif. ( I say nearly because I haven’t systematically studied them all, but those with predominant stories all fit.)

Rachel was a virgin, but the wordplay says the servant ‘took’ her, which word also means ‘married’ and further states that when she saw Isaac she covered herself, implying in riddle that she was uncovered with the servant. These words do not impugn Rachel, since it is a double entendre speaking of Christ and the church.

Rebekah and Leah together paint the same motif, Leah represents the prostitute in the picture, and Rebekah the virgin

Tamar played a prostitute, Judah said he would ‘send’ a goat, which word also means ‘sow’ as a shadow of the virgin birth, Judah was told there was no prostitute there, and later Tamar was pronounced more honorable than Judah. (Yes, the whole story of Tamar is a shadow of the birth of Christ). Tamar paints the prostitute-virgin bride.

The woman at the well was basically a prostitute, but she became the bride of Christ as she was gathered into the church.

Even Mary fulfills the role being suspected of prostitution, but being declared Holy.

Gomer was a prostitute but named her son Jezreel meaning ‘God sows’, again as a prophecy of the birth of Christ, and painting the prostitute-virgin bride motif.

Eve also falls into the motif. Israel and the church are the p & v.

There are many others. By the way, in another thread someone said there were no prophecies of a virgin birth, each of these is.

We see each person of the Godhead’s role, through the women at the well.
Rachel was chosen by the Father.
Rebekah was wooed, or called by the Son
The woman at Sychar was gathered by the Spirit. Why the Spirit you ask? Sychar means ‘intoxicated’ pointing to Pentecost and the Spirit.

The answer to the OP is that the woman is called woman since she participates in the same motif as the others and we are to meditate upon the motif as it applies to Christ and the church.

 

[Benadam]

Please read this with care. I will use terms that do not indicate the moral position of the people involved, but identify a motif in sensus plenior that has an interpretation outside the literal meaning of the historical accounts.

In sensus plenior, nearly all the women of the Bible are used in the prostitute-virgin bride motif. ( I say nearly because I haven’t systematically studied them all, but those with predominant stories all fit.)

Rachel was a virgin, but the wordplay says the servant ‘took’ her, which word also means ‘married’ and further states that when she saw Isaac she covered herself, implying in riddle that she was uncovered with the servant. These words do not impugn Rachel, since it is a double entendre speaking of Christ and the church.

Rebekah and Leah together paint the same motif, Leah represents the prostitute in the picture, and Rebekah the virgin

Tamar played a prostitute, Judah said he would ‘send’ a goat, which word also means ‘sow’ as a shadow of the virgin birth, Judah was told there was no prostitute there, and later Tamar was pronounced more honorable than Judah. (Yes, the whole story of Tamar is a shadow of the birth of Christ). Tamar paints the prostitute-virgin bride.

The woman at the well was basically a prostitute, but she became the bride of Christ as she was gathered into the church.

Even Mary fulfills the role being suspected of prostitution, but being declared Holy.

Gomer was a prostitute but named her son Jezreel meaning ‘God sows’, again as a prophecy of the birth of Christ, and painting the prostitute-virgin bride motif.

Eve also falls into the motif. Israel and the church are the p & v.

There are many others. By the way, in another thread someone said there were no prophecies of a virgin birth, each of these is.

We see each person of the Godhead’s role, through the women at the well.
Rachel was chosen by the Father.
Rebekah was wooed, or called by the Son
The woman at Sychar was gathered by the Spirit. Why the Spirit you ask? Sychar means ‘intoxicated’ pointing to Pentecost and the Spirit.

The answer to the OP is that the woman is called woman since she participates in the same motif as the others and we are to meditate upon the motif as it applies to Christ and the church.

I want to include one of my favorite women who’s pattern of life was an experience of the whole journey. Woman-> prostitute > Bride. Anna, mother of the prophet Samuel.

12

And it came to pass, as she multiplied prayers before the Lord, that Heli observed her mouth. 13 Now Anna spoke in her heart, and only her lips moved, but her voice was not heard at all. Heli therefore thought her to be drunk, 14 And said to her: How long wilt thou, be drunk? digest a little the wine, of which thou hast taken too much*
She has a boy that is concieved after spending the night at the Temple and the boy is dedicated to the Lord so he lives at the Temple with Eli and Eli is like a father to him.
A type of Mary who’s circumstance had the appearance of adultery.

Eve>Mary is the underlying dynamic happening to the woman rcjones described so well.

 

[rcjones]

I want to include one of my favorite women who’s pattern of life was an experience of the whole journey. Woman-> prostitute > Bride. Anna, mother of the prophet Samuel.

**
She has a boy that is concieved after spending the night at the Temple and the boy is dedicated to the Lord so he lives at the Temple with Eli and Eli is like a father to him.
A type of Mary who’s circumstance had the appearance of adultery.

Eve>Mary is the underlying dynamic happening to the woman rcjones described so well.

Cool Benadam,

There is more:

Christmas in 1 Samuel

Elkanah plays the same role as Judah did in The first telling of Christmas.

As Elkanah goes up to the temple he finds Hophni and Phinehas there. Their names mean pugilist and mouth of brass. At the time of Christ, God found priests who were beating the people with the law and had not love . (1 Co 13:11 Co 13:1)

Elkanah had two wives.
In the Prostitute-Virgin Bride Motif we see that the first wife is the earthly wife who, although has children, are not the children of the promise. They are earthly children who are dead in trespass and sin.

The second wife, Hannah, is the wife who is loved but is barren. She represents the church, the bride of Christ. Her name means grace. Mary was covered with grace in order to be in the overshadowing of God.

Rod of discipline
When her husband offered the sacrifice, he gave his first wife and her children their portion. And he gave Hannah a worthy portion. (1 Sam 1:51 Sam 1:5)

But the word also means angry or wrath. As Tamar was given the rod, Mary was told the power of God would overshadow her. It was the power of God in discipline hinted at in the sensus plenior of the word play.

Silence before Christ
In fulfillment of the prophecy of Malachi (Mal 4:6), God did not speak to Israel for four hundred years until John spoke. Bread represents the body of Christ as the Living Word. So when Hannah did not eat, (1 Sam 1:7) it represents the same silence of the Word of God before the time of Christ.

Scapegoat
Hannah vows that if God gives her a son that he shall be a Nazarite from birth. The Nazarite did not cut his hair.

1Co 11:14 Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?

The Nazarite is a picture of Christ who bore our shame. (Heb 12:2) The scapegoat bore our sin, and the Nazarite our shame.
The image of the Nazarite is the same as that of the scapegoat.

Holy Spirit shall come upon you
Hannah was thought to be drunk. (1 Sam 1 13). This is reminiscent of Pentecost when the people who had been filled by the Holy Spirit were thought to be drunk. (Acts 2:13) And again when the Holy Spirit gathered the bride at Sychar (meaning intoxicated). (Joh 4:5)

Not unclean
Hannah said she had not drunk wine or strong drink. Wine is the grace of the blood of Christ and strong drink is the law (which deludes people into thinking they are righteous). Hannah was not unclean and did not require the law or grace. She was in the same cleft of the rock as Tamar was when hid by the veil.

A play on words

1 Sam 1:18 And she said, Let thine handmaid find grace in thy sight.

Hannah means grace.

God’s son
Since Elkanah plays the same role that Judah did of God, when Elkanah begat a son, God begat a son.

She named him…
Samuel meaning His name is God. Is that close enough to “God with us” , or “Eternal God” to finish the Christmas story?

 

[orapronobis10]

This is very interesting. Thank you for your thought-provoking replies.

 

[Cashue]

I understand that the Church teaches that when Jesus calls his mother “Woman” he is not being disrespectful, but is referring to her as the woman from Genesis, chapter 3.

Does anyone know why Jesus calls the woman at the well in Samaria “Woman”?

This is for the same reason. Whenever Jesus said the word “woman” it was referring to Genesis, and showing the woman was part of the seed promised then. The Samaritan woman is spritually Mary’s sister and fellow queen of heaven.

 

[Flame4]

Well Jesus’ use of Woman both refer to as a form of address (ma’am, My lady, etc)
and it ALSO refers to Eve as Mary is the new Eve. Kind of a play on words, a double meaning. Like the play on words Shakespeare uses. However, that does not take away the more aparent meaning (a form of address.) When Jesus refers to the other women, it **is a respectful address. **