Mary's full of grace and Stephen's full of grace?

[auhsoj88]

Is it a reasonable explanation that Mary’s full of Grace and Stephen’s full of Grace (Acts 6:8) differed because Stephen was previously filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 6:5) and Mary was already full of Grace with an absence of the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:28)???

Some argue that “therefore, Stephen must have been sinless also”?

God bless

 

[NotWorthy]

How can you be “Full of Grace” and have an “absence of the Holy Spirit”?

The word used to describe Mary, “Kecharitomone” (did I spell that right?) means that she was always filled with Grace. Whereas Steven could be filled with Grace in the same way that I can at Baptism, or after I’ve received Penance after a full Confession. It’s due to an infusion of the Holy Spirit, but it’s only there in its complete “fullness” as long as I remain sinless and in a state of grace.

Notworthy

 

[jimmy]

auhsoj88:

Is it a reasonable explanation that Mary’s full of Grace and Stephen’s full of Grace (Acts 6:8) differed because Stephen was previously filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 6:5) and Mary was already full of Grace with an absence of the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:28)???

Some argue that “therefore, Stephen must have been sinless also”?

God bless

In the Greek Luke uses a pluperfect verb to describe Stephen and he uses a perfect verb to describe Mary. The difference is that the pluperfect shows an action that occured before some other point in time in the past. The perfect verb shows an action that occured in the past but continues into the present time. So according to Luke1, Mary was filled with Grace(It is a passive verb as well) in the past but she is still full of Grace. In Acts, Stephen was filled with Grace prior to his martyrdom. It does not mean Stephen was sinless, it just means that prior to his martyrdom he was filled with Grace that he would have strength.

 

[Thal59]

auhsoj88:

Is it a reasonable explanation that Mary’s full of Grace and Stephen’s full of Grace (Acts 6:8) differed because Stephen was previously filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 6:5) and Mary was already full of Grace with an absence of the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:28)???

Some argue that “therefore, Stephen must have been sinless also”?

God bless

Mary’s grace was perfect. She always had it, and therefore never sinned.

Stephen’s grace was full but not perfect. He did not always have it, and before his reception of the fullness of grace, he was a sinner.

We are like Stephen; sinners who seek a fullness of grace. This is why we sometimes ask Mary for her intercession; because she always had it.

Thal59